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Question: 590
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has following storage spaces:
� Data
� Users
� Backups
� Primordial
You add an additional hard disk to Server1.
You need to identify which storage space contains the new hard disk.
Which storage space contains the new disk?
A. Primordial
B. Data
C. Backups
D. Users
Answer: A
Explanation:
New Disks (Unallocated space) added to Primordial space Primordial Pool? All storage that meets acceptable criteria for Storage Spaces will be placed in
the Primordial Pool. This can be considered the default pool for devices from which any other pools will be created. Notice that there are no other virtual
disks or pools at this point. The Primordial Pool will only consist of physical storage devices that do not belong to any other pools.
References:
http://blogs.technet.com/b/canitpro/archive/2012/12/13/storage-pools-dive-right-in.aspx
http://blogs.technet.com/b/askpfeplat/archive/2012/10/10/windows-server-2012-storagespaces-is- it for-youcould-be.aspx
Question: 591
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You create a group Managed Service Account named gservice1.
You need to configure a service named Service1 to run as the gservice1 account.
How should you configure Service1?
A. From a command prompt, run sc.exe and specify the config parameter.
B. From a command prompt, run sc.exe and specify the sdset parameter.
C. From the Services console, configure the General settings.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run Set-Service and specify the -PassThrough parameter.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Executing the sc.exe command with the config parameter will modify service configuration. To specify a binary path for the NEWSERVICE service, type: sc
config NewService binpath= "ntsd -d c:windowssystem32NewServ.exe"
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc990290.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc738230(v=ws.10).aspx
Question: 592
You have a server named Data1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard.
You need to configure Data1 to run a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum
amount of administrative effort.
What should you perform?
A. An online servicing by using Dism
B. An offline servicing by using Dism
C. An upgrade installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
D. A clean installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
Answer: A
Explanation:
A. Not least effort
B. Not least effort
C. dism /online /set-edition
D. offline would be less ideal and more work ex: DISM /online /Set-Edition:ServerEnterprise /ProductKey:489J6-VHDMP-X63PK-3K798-CPX3YWindows
Server 2008 R2/2012 contains a command-line utility called DISM (Deployment Image Servicing and Management tool). This tool has many features, but one
of those features is the ability to upgrade the edition of Windows in use. Note that this process is for upgrades only and is irreversible. You cannot set a
Windows image to a lower edition. The lowest edition will not appear when you run the /Get-Target Editions option. If the server is running an evaluation
version of Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard or Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter, you can convert it to a retail version as follows:
If the server is a domain controller, you cannot convert it to a retail version. In this case, install an additional domain controller on a server that runs a retail
version and remove AD DS from the domain controller that runs on the evaluation version. From an elevated command prompt, determine the current edition
name with the command DISM /online /Get-CurrentEdition. Make note of the edition ID, an abbreviated form of the edition name. Then run DISM /online
/Set-Edition:<edition ID> /ProductKey:XXXXXXXXXX-XXXXX-XXXXXXXXXX
/AcceptEula, providing the edition ID and a retail product key.
The server will restart twice.
There are a couple of ways to install the GUI from the command prompt, although both use the same tool -DISM (Deployment Image Service Manager).
When you are doing it for a single (local) server, the command is:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:�
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/windows/it-pro/windows-server-2012-R2-and-2012/jj574204(v=ws.11)
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/windows/it-pro/windows-7/dd744380(v=ws.10)
http://blogs.technet.com/b/server_core/archive/2009/10/14/upgrading-windows-server2008-r2-without-media.aspx
Question: 593
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and child.contoso.com and two sites named Site1 and Site2. The domains and the sites are configured as
shown in following table.
When the link between Site1 and Site2 fails, users fail to log on to Site2.
You need to identify what prevents the users in Site2 from logging on to the child.contoso.com domain.
What should you identify?
A. The placement of the infrastructure master
B. The placement of the global catalog server
C. The placement of the domain naming master
D. The placement of the PDC emulator
Answer: B
Explanation:
User logon. In a forest that has more than one domain, two conditions require the global catalog during user authentication:
In a domain that operates at the Windows 2000 native domain functional level or higher, domain controllers must request universal group membership
enumeration from a global catalog server. When a user principal name (UPN) is used at logon and the forest has more than one domain, a global catalog
server is required to resolve the name.
References:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc728188(v=ws.10).aspx
Question: 594
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You plan to create an image of Server1.
You need to remove the source files for all server roles that are not installed on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. dism.exe
B. servermanagercmd.exe
C. ocsetup.exe
D. imagex.exe
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Dism utility can be used to create and mount an image of Server1.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The ServerManagerCmd.exe command-line tool has been deprecated in Windows Server 2008 R2.
C: The Ocsetup.exe tool isused as a wrapper for Package Manager (Pkgmgr.exe) and for Windows Installer (Msiexec.exe). Ocsetup.exe is a command-line
utility that can be used to perform scripted installs and scripted uninstalls of Windows optional components. The Ocsetup.exe tool replaces the Sysocmgr.exe
tool that Windows XP and Windows Server 2003 use.
D: ImageX is a command-line tool in Windows Vista that you can use to create and manage Windows image (.wim) files. A .wim file contains one or more
volume images, disk volumes that contain images of an installed Windows operating system.
References:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh824822.aspx
http://blogs.technet.com/b/joscon/archive/2010/08/26/adding-features-with- dism.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831809.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh825265.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc749447(v=ws.10).aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd744382(v=ws.10).asp
Question: 595
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
You plan to schedule a complete backup of Server1 by using Windows Server Backup.
You need to ensure that the state of VM1 is saved before the backup starts.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Answer: I
Explanation:
Backup Operations in Hyper-V
No VSS Writer Available?
In some cases, you need an Application-consistent backup but there is no VSS writer available. One example of this is MySQL. Hyper-V backups of virtual
machines containing MySQL will always result in either a crash consistent or an image-level backup. For MySQL, the latter is probably acceptable as MySQL
doesn�t perpetually expand the log file. However, if you�re using MySQL within a VSS-aware VM, then a Hyper-Vbased backup tool is going to take a
crashconsistent backup. MySQL (like any other database system) isn�t always recoverable from a crash-consistent backup; tool is going to take a crash-
consistent backup. MySQL (like any other database system) isn�t always recoverable from a crash-consistent backup; even when recovery is possible, it may be
painful.
MySQL is just one example; any number of line-of-business Applications could tell a similar tale. In the case of MySQL, one solution is to find a guest-level
backup Application that is MySQL- aware and can back it up properly. For Applications for which no backup Application has a plug-in, you may need to have
preand post-backup scripts that stop services or close Applications. If brief downtime is acceptable, you can disable the Backup item in Hyper-V Integration
Services, thereby forcing Hyper-V to save the state of the VM during backup. This technique results in an image-level backup and can be used on any
Application that doesn�t have a VSS writer.
References: https://www.altaro.com/hyper-v/vss-crash-consistent-vs-application-consistent-vss-backups-post-2-of-2/
Question: 596
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
VM3 is used to test applications.
You need to prevent VM3 from synchronizing its clock to Server1.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Answer: I
Explanation:
Integration Services settings on virtual machines includes services such as operating system shutdown, time synchronization, data exchange, Heart beat, and
Backup (volume snapshot services. Thus you should disable the time synchronization using Integration Services.
References:
http://blogs.technet.com/b/virtualization/archive/2008/08/29/backing-up-hyper-v-virtual-machines.aspx
Exam Ref 70-410, Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure virtual machine
settings, p. 144
Question: 597
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
VM2 sends and receives large amounts of data over the network.
You need to ensure that the network traffic of VM2 bypasses the virtual switches of the parent partition.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Answer: K
Explanation:
Single-root I/O virtualization -capable network adapters can be assigned directly to a virtual machine to maximize network throughput while minimizing
network latency and the CPU overhead required for processing network traffic.
References:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc766320(v=ws.10).aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831410.aspx
Exam Ref 70-410, Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure virtual machine
settings, p. 144
Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter 7: Hyper-V Virtualization, Lesson 2: Deploying and configuring virtual machines,
p. 335
Question: 598
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1.
You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The imagex.exe command
B. The ocsetup.exe command
C. The setup.exe command
D. The dism.exe command
E. The Install-Module cmdlet
Answer: D
Explanation:
The DISM command is called by the Add-WindowsFeature command. Here is the systax for DISM:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:Server- Gui-Shell /featurename:Server-Gui-Mgmt
Question: 599
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.
You install a network monitoring application on VM2.
You need to ensure that all of the traffic sent to VM3 can be captured on VM2.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
Answer: J
Explanation:
What�s New in Hyper-V Virtual Switch
Port Mirroring
With Port Mirroring, traffic sent to or from a Hyper-V Virtual Switch port is copied and sent to a mirror port.
There are a range of applications for port mirroring an entire ecosystem of network visibility companies exist that have products designed to consume port
mirror data for performance management, security analysis, and network diagnostics. With Hyper-V Virtual Switch port mirroring, you can select the switch
ports that are monitored as well as the switch port that receives copies of all the traffic.
The following examples configure port mirroring so that all traffic that is sent and received by both MyVM and MyVM2 is also sent to the VM named
MonitorVM.
Set-VMNetworkAdapter VMName MyVM PortMirroring Source
Set-VMNetworkAdapter VMName MyVM2 PortMirroring Source
Set-VMNetworkAdapter VMName MonitorVM PortMirroring Destination
References: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj679878.aspx#bkmk_portmirror
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QUESTION: 62
How is a service ticket used when constructing a Cisco APIC-EM API request?
A. to identify the service type
B. to identify a service on the controller
C. to determine the request type
D. as a security token
Answer: B
QUESTION: 63
The network operator asks you to change the config setting on one specific host. All 300
hosts are managed with Puppet. Which action results m the requested Change?
A. This is an unsupported feature of Puppet, and Chef or Ansible must be used to make
this change.
B. Go to that host and make the config change. Puppet sees the local override and skips
that part.
C. Add anif statement to the Puppet manifest, and add specific config settings, in case
Puppet is running on that host.
D. Add a node-based variable lookup override in Hiera, so that if Puppet runs on that host,
it takes the variable from Hiera.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 64
Which two data representation formats are used in RESTCONF? (Choose two.)
A. HTML
B. YAML
C. XML
D. GML
E. ASN.1
F. JSON
Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 65
Whichfeatureenablesservicefunctionchainingtosteertraffictovirtualnetwork
functions?
A. GRE
B. VXLA
C. EH
D. NSH
E. REST
Answer: D
QUESTION: 66
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action effectively secures the controller?
A. Enable HTTP to HTTPS redirect.
B. Require complex passwords.
C. Use NAT on the router before the controller.
D. Blacklist the public WAN.
E. Whitelist the Admins network and block all others.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 67
WhichstatementindicatesthatanelementinaYANGdatamodelcontainsdatathat
describes operational state information about the device or service?
A. state true
B. config false
C. mode state
D. state enabled
Answer: B
QUESTION: 68
Drag and drop the protocol on the loft to its correct description on the right.
Answer:
QUESTION: 69
Which two tools help you to program against Nexus APIs? (Choose two.)
A. Jenkins
B. Cisco Nexus 1000v
C. VIRL
D. DevNet sandboxes
E. Cisco Open SDN Controller
Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 70
Which statement about shading in ACI is true?
A. Sharding is the technology that is designed to prevent "split-brain" scenarios in ACI
B. Sharding is the service that presents the API on a Cisco APIC
C. Sharding is the mechanism for distributing the database and configuration changes on a
Cisco APIC cluster.
D. Sharding is the distributed topology that is used in ACI (also referred to as spine-leaf).
Answer: B
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QUESTION: 62
How is a service ticket used when constructing a Cisco APIC-EM API request?
A. to identify the service type
B. to identify a service on the controller
C. to determine the request type
D. as a security token
Answer: B
QUESTION: 63
The network operator asks you to change the config setting on one specific host. All 300
hosts are managed with Puppet. Which action results m the requested Change?
A. This is an unsupported feature of Puppet, and Chef or Ansible must be used to make
this change.
B. Go to that host and make the config change. Puppet sees the local override and skips
that part.
C. Add anif statement to the Puppet manifest, and add specific config settings, in case
Puppet is running on that host.
D. Add a node-based variable lookup override in Hiera, so that if Puppet runs on that host,
it takes the variable from Hiera.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 64
Which two data representation formats are used in RESTCONF? (Choose two.)
A. HTML
B. YAML
C. XML
D. GML
E. ASN.1
F. JSON
Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 65
Whichfeatureenablesservicefunctionchainingtosteertraffictovirtualnetwork
functions?
A. GRE
B. VXLA
C. EH
D. NSH
E. REST
Answer: D
QUESTION: 66
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action effectively secures the controller?
A. Enable HTTP to HTTPS redirect.
B. Require complex passwords.
C. Use NAT on the router before the controller.
D. Blacklist the public WAN.
E. Whitelist the Admins network and block all others.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 67
WhichstatementindicatesthatanelementinaYANGdatamodelcontainsdatathat
describes operational state information about the device or service?
A. state true
B. config false
C. mode state
D. state enabled
Answer: B
QUESTION: 68
Drag and drop the protocol on the loft to its correct description on the right.
Answer:
QUESTION: 69
Which two tools help you to program against Nexus APIs? (Choose two.)
A. Jenkins
B. Cisco Nexus 1000v
C. VIRL
D. DevNet sandboxes
E. Cisco Open SDN Controller
Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 70
Which statement about shading in ACI is true?
A. Sharding is the technology that is designed to prevent "split-brain" scenarios in ACI
B. Sharding is the service that presents the API on a Cisco APIC
C. Sharding is the mechanism for distributing the database and configuration changes on a
Cisco APIC cluster.
D. Sharding is the distributed topology that is used in ACI (also referred to as spine-leaf).
Answer: B
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QUESTION: 56
A client is failing EAP authentication and a debug shows that the server is sending an
Access-Reject message. Which action must you take to resolve authentication?
A. Verify that the Validate server certificate on the client is disabled.
B. Verify that the client certificates are from the proper CA and server certificate.
C. Verify that the client server certificate has the proper Windows OlDs.
D. Verify that the user account is the same in the client certificate.
E. Verify that the user is using the same password that is on the server
Answer: B
QUESTION: 57
When implementing interface groups, how are the IP addresses sourced via DHCP for
wireless clients?
A. through the primary interface of the group
B. through round robin between interfaces
C. through interface group definition
D. through the interface receiving the first response
Answer: B
QUESTION: 58
Which three steps would a network engineer use to troubleshoot an AP join problem?
(Choose three.)
A. Validate the STP configuration.
B. Verify the ping AP from the controller.
C. Verify the ping AP from the client.
D. Verify that the AP is getting an address from the DHCP server.
E. I Validate the SNMP configuration.
F. Verify the authentication configuration parameters.
Answer: A, B,
F
QUESTION: 59
An engineer has run the debug dhcp packet enable command on the wireless LAN
controller CLI. Which field contacts the IP address offered to the client?
A. siaddr
B. ciaddr
C. chaddr
D. yiaddr
E. giaddr
Answer: C
QUESTION: 60
Refer to the exhibit.
Access points ate deployed in an office building and users report that thereal-time
communications quality of experience is poor when users walk between the elevators
The elevators are a heavy metallic obstacle, and AP 3 was installed to cover the
elevator area, which AP t and AP 2 signal does not reach Communications are
captured for a user walking from point A to point C. and it is observed that the user
iPhone device suddenly scans all bands and then roams from AP I to AP 3 somewhere
between points B and C WLAN is set to 5 GHz only. Open, default rate configuration.
Which action improves the real-time application quality of experience in this area?
A. Enable 802 11v on the WLAN
B. Enable 802 11r on the WLAN
C. Enable 802 11k on the WLAN
D. Move AP 2 to point B
Answer: B
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QUESTION: 56
A client is failing EAP authentication and a debug shows that the server is sending an
Access-Reject message. Which action must you take to resolve authentication?
A. Verify that the Validate server certificate on the client is disabled.
B. Verify that the client certificates are from the proper CA and server certificate.
C. Verify that the client server certificate has the proper Windows OlDs.
D. Verify that the user account is the same in the client certificate.
E. Verify that the user is using the same password that is on the server
Answer: B
QUESTION: 57
When implementing interface groups, how are the IP addresses sourced via DHCP for
wireless clients?
A. through the primary interface of the group
B. through round robin between interfaces
C. through interface group definition
D. through the interface receiving the first response
Answer: B
QUESTION: 58
Which three steps would a network engineer use to troubleshoot an AP join problem?
(Choose three.)
A. Validate the STP configuration.
B. Verify the ping AP from the controller.
C. Verify the ping AP from the client.
D. Verify that the AP is getting an address from the DHCP server.
E. I Validate the SNMP configuration.
F. Verify the authentication configuration parameters.
Answer: A, B,
F
QUESTION: 59
An engineer has run the debug dhcp packet enable command on the wireless LAN
controller CLI. Which field contacts the IP address offered to the client?
A. siaddr
B. ciaddr
C. chaddr
D. yiaddr
E. giaddr
Answer: C
QUESTION: 60
Refer to the exhibit.
Access points ate deployed in an office building and users report that thereal-time
communications quality of experience is poor when users walk between the elevators
The elevators are a heavy metallic obstacle, and AP 3 was installed to cover the
elevator area, which AP t and AP 2 signal does not reach Communications are
captured for a user walking from point A to point C. and it is observed that the user
iPhone device suddenly scans all bands and then roams from AP I to AP 3 somewhere
between points B and C WLAN is set to 5 GHz only. Open, default rate configuration.
Which action improves the real-time application quality of experience in this area?
A. Enable 802 11v on the WLAN
B. Enable 802 11r on the WLAN
C. Enable 802 11k on the WLAN
D. Move AP 2 to point B
Answer: B
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Question: 240
Which of these reasons can cause intrasite calls within a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster to fail?
A. The route partition that is configured in the CCD requesting service is not listed in the calling phone CSS.
B. The trunk CSS does not include the partition for the called directory number.
C. The MGCP gateway is not registered.
D. The calling phone does not have the correct CSS configured.
E. The calling phone does not have the correct partition configured.
Answer: D
Question: 241
You must integrate a third-party H.323 system with your existing Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. When you create an H.323 trunk from the cluster, calls from the cluster to the third-party H.323
system are failing. The vendor of the third-party H.323 device has confirmed that the H.323 call setup time must be reduced. Which two approaches reduce the call setup time from Cisco Unified Communications
Manager to the third-party H.323 device? (Choose two.)
A. Implement a software MTP.
B. Implement a hardware MTP.
C. Implement transcoding with the router DSP resources.
D. Implement transcoding with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager resources.
Answer: A,B
Question: 242
Which two troubleshooting tools would initially be the best to use when troubleshooting the PSTN gateway side of a call routing issue while using Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. RTMT trace output
B. Cisco IOS debug commands
C. Dialed Number Analyzer output
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager alerts
E. Cisco IOS show commands
Answer: B,E
Question: 243
When a database replication issue is suspected, which three tools can be used to check the database replication status? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager RTMT tool
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability interface
C. Cisco Unified Reporting
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CLI interface
E. Cisco IP Phone Device Stats from the Settings button
F. Cisco Unified OS Administration interface
Answer: A,C,D
Question: 244
To maintain proper database integrity, what is the recommended maximum round-trip delay between multiple Cisco VCS appliances in a cluster?
A. 10 ms
B. 15 ms
C. 25 ms
D. 30 ms
E. 50 ms
F. 80 ms
Answer: D
Question: 245
You are trying to register an H.323-based Cisco TelePresence system to Cisco Unified Communications Manager and a Cisco DX70 system to the Cisco VCS Control. Why do neither of the units want to register?
A. The H.323-based system needs an E164 number to register to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, and the Cisco DX70 needs to have the MAC address configured first on the Cisco VCS Control.
B. The H.323-based system needs to register to the Cisco VCS Control with an E.164 number, and the Cisco DX70 needs the TFTP address to register on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. Both systems need to register to the Cisco VCS Control, but the H.323-based system needs to have the gatekeeper setting set to �Direct.�
D. Both systems need to register to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, as the Cisco VCS Control is used only for firewall traversal.
E. You need Cisco TelePresence Management Suite to register Cisco TelePresence systems.
F. You need Cisco TelePresence Server to register Cisco TelePresence systems.
Answer: B
Question: 246
Endpoints are configured for both H.323 and SIP using the same URI and Cisco VCS settings, but the endpoints register only as H.323 endpoints. What is causing this issue?
A. A firewall is blocking all traffic from the endpoints to the Cisco VCS.
B. The Cisco VCS has no SIP domains configured.
C. The Cisco VCS is blocking the endpoints because of duplicate ID entries.
D. The endpoints do not have the SIP option key installed.
E. SIP does not work, because SIP is used for Cisco Unified Communications Manager registration only.
Answer: B
Question: 247
Which issue would cause an MGCP gateway to fail to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. missing the configuration command isdn bind-l3 ccm-manager under the ISDN interface
B. mismatched domain name on the MGCP gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager gateway configuration
C. misconfigured route group in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. incorrect MGCP IP address specified in the gateway configuration in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Answer: B
Question: 248
You configured a Cisco ISR G2 as a SIP gateway, but the gateway does not show that it is registered with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
What is causing this issue?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not support SIP gateways.
B. The gateway does not have the UC license installed.
C. The gateway does not have Cisco Unified Border Element session licensing.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not show a SIP gateway as registered if it is not properly configured.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager never shows a SIP gateway as registered even when it is properly configured.
F. The Cisco ISR G2 cannot be a SIP gateway.
Answer: E
Question: 249
Refer to the exhibit.
An IP phone that is connected through a Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch is failing to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager. When the user presses the settings button on the phone, the Operational
VLAN ID shows a blank entry. What is the most likely cause for this issue?
A. The switch may not be supplying inline power.
B. The spanning tree portfast command needs to be removed.
C. The trunk encapsulation is missing. The trunk must be configured for dot1.Q.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol is disabled on the switch.
E. The Operational VLAN ID of the phone always shows as blank. The Admin. VLAN ID should be 110.
Answer: D
Question: 250
An IP phone that is connected through a Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch is failing to register with the subscriber as a backup server. When the user presses the settings button on the phone, only the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager publisher shows as registered. What is the most likely cause for this issue?
A. The phone does not have the correct Cisco Unified Communications Manager group in the device configuration page.
B. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager group that is applied through the device pool is misconfigured.
C. The ip-helper address command for the subscriber is not configured on the switch port.
D. The subscriber does not have the correct device pool configured.
E. The enterprise phone configuration does not have the call control redundancy enabled.
Answer: B
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Question: 240
Which of these reasons can cause intrasite calls within a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster to fail?
A. The route partition that is configured in the CCD requesting service is not listed in the calling phone CSS.
B. The trunk CSS does not include the partition for the called directory number.
C. The MGCP gateway is not registered.
D. The calling phone does not have the correct CSS configured.
E. The calling phone does not have the correct partition configured.
Answer: D
Question: 241
You must integrate a third-party H.323 system with your existing Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. When you create an H.323 trunk from the cluster, calls from the cluster to the third-party H.323
system are failing. The vendor of the third-party H.323 device has confirmed that the H.323 call setup time must be reduced. Which two approaches reduce the call setup time from Cisco Unified Communications
Manager to the third-party H.323 device? (Choose two.)
A. Implement a software MTP.
B. Implement a hardware MTP.
C. Implement transcoding with the router DSP resources.
D. Implement transcoding with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager resources.
Answer: A,B
Question: 242
Which two troubleshooting tools would initially be the best to use when troubleshooting the PSTN gateway side of a call routing issue while using Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. RTMT trace output
B. Cisco IOS debug commands
C. Dialed Number Analyzer output
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager alerts
E. Cisco IOS show commands
Answer: B,E
Question: 243
When a database replication issue is suspected, which three tools can be used to check the database replication status? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager RTMT tool
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability interface
C. Cisco Unified Reporting
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CLI interface
E. Cisco IP Phone Device Stats from the Settings button
F. Cisco Unified OS Administration interface
Answer: A,C,D
Question: 244
To maintain proper database integrity, what is the recommended maximum round-trip delay between multiple Cisco VCS appliances in a cluster?
A. 10 ms
B. 15 ms
C. 25 ms
D. 30 ms
E. 50 ms
F. 80 ms
Answer: D
Question: 245
You are trying to register an H.323-based Cisco TelePresence system to Cisco Unified Communications Manager and a Cisco DX70 system to the Cisco VCS Control. Why do neither of the units want to register?
A. The H.323-based system needs an E164 number to register to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, and the Cisco DX70 needs to have the MAC address configured first on the Cisco VCS Control.
B. The H.323-based system needs to register to the Cisco VCS Control with an E.164 number, and the Cisco DX70 needs the TFTP address to register on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. Both systems need to register to the Cisco VCS Control, but the H.323-based system needs to have the gatekeeper setting set to �Direct.�
D. Both systems need to register to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, as the Cisco VCS Control is used only for firewall traversal.
E. You need Cisco TelePresence Management Suite to register Cisco TelePresence systems.
F. You need Cisco TelePresence Server to register Cisco TelePresence systems.
Answer: B
Question: 246
Endpoints are configured for both H.323 and SIP using the same URI and Cisco VCS settings, but the endpoints register only as H.323 endpoints. What is causing this issue?
A. A firewall is blocking all traffic from the endpoints to the Cisco VCS.
B. The Cisco VCS has no SIP domains configured.
C. The Cisco VCS is blocking the endpoints because of duplicate ID entries.
D. The endpoints do not have the SIP option key installed.
E. SIP does not work, because SIP is used for Cisco Unified Communications Manager registration only.
Answer: B
Question: 247
Which issue would cause an MGCP gateway to fail to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. missing the configuration command isdn bind-l3 ccm-manager under the ISDN interface
B. mismatched domain name on the MGCP gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager gateway configuration
C. misconfigured route group in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. incorrect MGCP IP address specified in the gateway configuration in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Answer: B
Question: 248
You configured a Cisco ISR G2 as a SIP gateway, but the gateway does not show that it is registered with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
What is causing this issue?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not support SIP gateways.
B. The gateway does not have the UC license installed.
C. The gateway does not have Cisco Unified Border Element session licensing.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not show a SIP gateway as registered if it is not properly configured.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager never shows a SIP gateway as registered even when it is properly configured.
F. The Cisco ISR G2 cannot be a SIP gateway.
Answer: E
Question: 249
Refer to the exhibit.
An IP phone that is connected through a Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch is failing to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager. When the user presses the settings button on the phone, the Operational
VLAN ID shows a blank entry. What is the most likely cause for this issue?
A. The switch may not be supplying inline power.
B. The spanning tree portfast command needs to be removed.
C. The trunk encapsulation is missing. The trunk must be configured for dot1.Q.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol is disabled on the switch.
E. The Operational VLAN ID of the phone always shows as blank. The Admin. VLAN ID should be 110.
Answer: D
Question: 250
An IP phone that is connected through a Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch is failing to register with the subscriber as a backup server. When the user presses the settings button on the phone, only the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager publisher shows as registered. What is the most likely cause for this issue?
A. The phone does not have the correct Cisco Unified Communications Manager group in the device configuration page.
B. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager group that is applied through the device pool is misconfigured.
C. The ip-helper address command for the subscriber is not configured on the switch port.
D. The subscriber does not have the correct device pool configured.
E. The enterprise phone configuration does not have the call control redundancy enabled.
Answer: B
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ON: 461
The doctor was known as a charlatan over the years of his practice. Charlatan means...
A. Quack.
B. Knowledgeable physician.
C. Procedural physician.
D. Medical examiner.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 462
The wound exhibited signs of copious drainage requiring medical intervention. Copious means...
A. Minimal.
B. Clear.
C. Maximal.
D. Foul.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 463
The attorney accused the witness of defaming the defendant. Defaming means...
A. Killing.
B. Badgering.
C. Suffocating.
D. Slandering.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 464
The detective was able to derive the facts of the case. Derive means...
A. Desist.
B. Deter.
C. Devise.
D. Deduce.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 465
The scientist was able to evoke powerful emotions from her audience. Evoke means...
A. Sell.
B. Calm.
C. Call forth.
D. Exaggerate.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 466
The judge was fallible during deliberation. Fallible means...
A. Careful not to err.
B. Falsely accused.
C. Loyal to his supporters.
D. Capable of mistakes.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 467
The chemist collected the germane data during the experiment. Germane means...
A. Relevant.
B. Obscure.
C. Limited.
D. Usual.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 468
The desperados held up in a grotto in New Mexico during the escape. Grotto means...
A. Large cave.
B. Small cavern.
C. Hotel.
D. Motel.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 469
The official exhibited a heedless attitude when dealing with the dignitaries. Heedless means...
A. Thoughtless.
B. Pleasant.
C. Friendly.
D. Bitter.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 470
The Sherman tank commander noted innumerable troops moving forward against his position.
Innumerable means...
A. Limited.
B. Weary.
C. Countless.
D. Harmless.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 471
The general tried to instill in his troops the hope of victory. Instill means...
A. Infuse.
B. Delay.
C. Inscribe.
D. Indict.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 472
The winning team of the World Series often has a jovial attitude. Jovial means...
A. Merry.
B. Sad.
C. Somber.
D. Laborious.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 473
The plant entered the latent phase of development in the fall. Latent means...
A. First.
B. Growth.
C. Last.
D. Dormant.
Answer: D
Section 41: Sec Forty One (474 to 483)
Details: Wave Practice Questions:
QUESTION: 474
Wave velocity is a product of _______ and ________.
A. Wavelength and Phase angle
B. Frequency and Wavelength
C. Phase Angle and Frequency
D. Amplitude and Frequency
Answer: B
QUESTION: 475
The calculation for a period of a wave (T) is indicted as the formula?
A. T = 1/?
B. T = ?
C. T = ?v
D. T = ?/v
Answer: A
QUESTION: 476
The driver of a car sounds a horn while traveling toward a stationary person. Compared to the
sound of the horn heard by the driver, the sound heard by the stationary person has?
A. Lower pitch and shorter wavelength
B. Lower pitch and longer wavelength
C. Higher pitch and shorter wavelength
D. Higher pitch and longer wavelength
Answer: C
QUESTION: 477
As a sound wave travels through air there is a net transfer of ____.
A. Energy only
B. Mass only
C. Both Mass and Energy
D. Neither Mass or Energy
Answer: A
QUESTION: 478
As a wave travels through a medium, the particles of the wave vibrate in the direction of the
wave's travel. What type of wave is traveling through the medium?
152
A. Longitudina
B. Torsional
C. Transverse
D. Hyperbolic
Answer: A
QUESTION: 479
A wave completes one vibration as it moves a distance of 2 meters at a speed of 20 meters per
second. What is the frequency of the wave?
A. 10 Hz
B. 2 Hz
C. 20 Hz
D. 40 Hz
Answer: A
QUESTION: 480
What is the period of a wave, if 20 crests pass an observer in 4 seconds?
A. 80 s
B. .2 s
C. 5 s
D. 4 s
Answer: B
QUESTION: 481
Twowavestraveling in
thesamemediuminterferetoproduceastanding wave.Whatisthe
phase difference between the 2 waves at a node?
A. 0 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 360 degrees
Answer: C
QUESTION: 482
As a pulse travels along a rope, the pulse loses energy and its amplitude
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remains the same
Answer: A
QUESTION: 483
Compared to the wavelengths of visible light the wavelengths of UV light are
A. Shorter
B. Longer
C. The Same
Answer: A
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ON: 461
The doctor was known as a charlatan over the years of his practice. Charlatan means...
A. Quack.
B. Knowledgeable physician.
C. Procedural physician.
D. Medical examiner.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 462
The wound exhibited signs of copious drainage requiring medical intervention. Copious means...
A. Minimal.
B. Clear.
C. Maximal.
D. Foul.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 463
The attorney accused the witness of defaming the defendant. Defaming means...
A. Killing.
B. Badgering.
C. Suffocating.
D. Slandering.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 464
The detective was able to derive the facts of the case. Derive means...
A. Desist.
B. Deter.
C. Devise.
D. Deduce.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 465
The scientist was able to evoke powerful emotions from her audience. Evoke means...
A. Sell.
B. Calm.
C. Call forth.
D. Exaggerate.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 466
The judge was fallible during deliberation. Fallible means...
A. Careful not to err.
B. Falsely accused.
C. Loyal to his supporters.
D. Capable of mistakes.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 467
The chemist collected the germane data during the experiment. Germane means...
A. Relevant.
B. Obscure.
C. Limited.
D. Usual.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 468
The desperados held up in a grotto in New Mexico during the escape. Grotto means...
A. Large cave.
B. Small cavern.
C. Hotel.
D. Motel.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 469
The official exhibited a heedless attitude when dealing with the dignitaries. Heedless means...
A. Thoughtless.
B. Pleasant.
C. Friendly.
D. Bitter.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 470
The Sherman tank commander noted innumerable troops moving forward against his position.
Innumerable means...
A. Limited.
B. Weary.
C. Countless.
D. Harmless.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 471
The general tried to instill in his troops the hope of victory. Instill means...
A. Infuse.
B. Delay.
C. Inscribe.
D. Indict.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 472
The winning team of the World Series often has a jovial attitude. Jovial means...
A. Merry.
B. Sad.
C. Somber.
D. Laborious.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 473
The plant entered the latent phase of development in the fall. Latent means...
A. First.
B. Growth.
C. Last.
D. Dormant.
Answer: D
Section 41: Sec Forty One (474 to 483)
Details: Wave Practice Questions:
QUESTION: 474
Wave velocity is a product of _______ and ________.
A. Wavelength and Phase angle
B. Frequency and Wavelength
C. Phase Angle and Frequency
D. Amplitude and Frequency
Answer: B
QUESTION: 475
The calculation for a period of a wave (T) is indicted as the formula?
A. T = 1/?
B. T = ?
C. T = ?v
D. T = ?/v
Answer: A
QUESTION: 476
The driver of a car sounds a horn while traveling toward a stationary person. Compared to the
sound of the horn heard by the driver, the sound heard by the stationary person has?
A. Lower pitch and shorter wavelength
B. Lower pitch and longer wavelength
C. Higher pitch and shorter wavelength
D. Higher pitch and longer wavelength
Answer: C
QUESTION: 477
As a sound wave travels through air there is a net transfer of ____.
A. Energy only
B. Mass only
C. Both Mass and Energy
D. Neither Mass or Energy
Answer: A
QUESTION: 478
As a wave travels through a medium, the particles of the wave vibrate in the direction of the
wave's travel. What type of wave is traveling through the medium?
152
A. Longitudina
B. Torsional
C. Transverse
D. Hyperbolic
Answer: A
QUESTION: 479
A wave completes one vibration as it moves a distance of 2 meters at a speed of 20 meters per
second. What is the frequency of the wave?
A. 10 Hz
B. 2 Hz
C. 20 Hz
D. 40 Hz
Answer: A
QUESTION: 480
What is the period of a wave, if 20 crests pass an observer in 4 seconds?
A. 80 s
B. .2 s
C. 5 s
D. 4 s
Answer: B
QUESTION: 481
Twowavestraveling in
thesamemediuminterferetoproduceastanding wave.Whatisthe
phase difference between the 2 waves at a node?
A. 0 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 360 degrees
Answer: C
QUESTION: 482
As a pulse travels along a rope, the pulse loses energy and its amplitude
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remains the same
Answer: A
QUESTION: 483
Compared to the wavelengths of visible light the wavelengths of UV light are
A. Shorter
B. Longer
C. The Same
Answer: A
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Answer: B, E
Explanation:
(https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/documentation/60/panorama/panoramaadminguide/se
t-up-panorama/set-up-the-m-100-appliance)
QUESTION: 52
Which three log-forwarding destinations require a server profile to be configured? (Choose
three)
A. SNMP Trap
B. Email
C. RADIUS
D. Kerberos
E. Panorama
F. Syslog
Answer: A, B, F
QUESTION: 53
Which three fields can be included in a pcap filter? (Choose three)
A. Egress interface
B. Source IP
C. Rule number
D. Destination IP
E. Ingress interface
Answer: B, D, E
Explanation:
(https://live.paloaltonetworks.com/t5/Featured-Articles/Getting-Started-Packet-Capture/ta-
p/72069)
QUESTION: 54
The company's Panorama server(IP 10.10.10.5) is not able to manage a firewall that was
recently deployed. The firewall's dedicated management port is being used to connect to the
managementnetwork. Which two commands may be used to troubleshoot this issue from
the CLI of the new firewall? (Choose two)
A. test panoramas-connect 10.10.10.5
B. show panoramas-status
C. show arp all I match 10.10.10.5
D. topdump filter "host 10.10.10.5
E. debug dataplane packet-diag set capture on
Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 55
AfterpushingasecuritypolicyfromPanoramatoaPA-3020firwall,thefirewall
administrator notices that traffic logs from the PA-3020 are not appearing in Panorama�s
traffic logs. What could be the problem?
A. A Server Profile has not been configured for logging to this Panorama device.
B. Panorama is not licensed to receive logs from this particular firewall.
C. The firewall is not licensed for logging to this Panorama device.
D. None of the firwwall's policies have been assigned a Log Forwarding profile
Answer: D
QUESTION: 56
Which client software can be used to connect remote Linux client into a Palo Alto Networks
Infrastructure without sacrificing the ability to scan traffic and protect against threats?
A. X-Auth IPsec VPN
B. GlobalProtect Apple IOS
C. GlobalProtect SSL
D. GlobalProtect Linux
Answer: D
Explanation:
( http://blog.webernetz.net/2014/03/31/palo-alto-globalprotect-for-linux-with-vpnc/ )
QUESTION: 57
Which two interface types can be used when configuring GlobalProtect Portal?(Choose two)
A. Virtual Wire
B. Loopback
C. Layer 3
D. Tunnel
Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 58
Click the Exhibit button
An administrator has noticed a large increase in bittorrent activity. The administrator wants
to determine where the traffic is going on the company. What would be the administrator's
next step?
A. Right-Click on the bittorrent link and select Value from the context menu
B. Create a global filter for bittorrent traffic and then view Traffic logs.
C. Create local filter for bittorrent traffic and then view Traffic logs.
D. Click on the bittorrent application link to view network activity
Answer: D
QUESTION: 59
AcriticalUS-CERTnotificationispublishedregardinganewlydiscoveredbotnet.The
malwareisveryevasiveandisnotreliablydetectedbyendpointantivirussoftware.
Furthermore, SSL is used to tunnel malicious traffic to command-and-control servers on the
internet and SSL Forward Proxy Decryption is not enabled. Which component once enabled
onaperirneterfirewallwillallowtheidentificationofexistinginfectedhostsinan
environment?
A. Anti-Spyware profiles applied outbound security policies with DNS Query action set to
sinkhole
B. File Blocking profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to alert
C. Vulnerability Protection profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to
block
D. Antivirus profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to alert
Answer: C
QUESTION: 60
What are three possible verdicts that WildFire can provide for an analyzed sample? (Choose
three)
A. Clean
B. Bengin
C. Adware
D. Suspicious
E. Grayware
F. Malware
Answer: B, E, F
Explanation:
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/documentation/70/pan- os/newfeaturesguide/wildfire-
features/wildfire-grayware-verdict
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Answer: B, E
Explanation:
(https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/documentation/60/panorama/panoramaadminguide/se
t-up-panorama/set-up-the-m-100-appliance)
QUESTION: 52
Which three log-forwarding destinations require a server profile to be configured? (Choose
three)
A. SNMP Trap
B. Email
C. RADIUS
D. Kerberos
E. Panorama
F. Syslog
Answer: A, B, F
QUESTION: 53
Which three fields can be included in a pcap filter? (Choose three)
A. Egress interface
B. Source IP
C. Rule number
D. Destination IP
E. Ingress interface
Answer: B, D, E
Explanation:
(https://live.paloaltonetworks.com/t5/Featured-Articles/Getting-Started-Packet-Capture/ta-
p/72069)
QUESTION: 54
The company's Panorama server(IP 10.10.10.5) is not able to manage a firewall that was
recently deployed. The firewall's dedicated management port is being used to connect to the
managementnetwork. Which two commands may be used to troubleshoot this issue from
the CLI of the new firewall? (Choose two)
A. test panoramas-connect 10.10.10.5
B. show panoramas-status
C. show arp all I match 10.10.10.5
D. topdump filter "host 10.10.10.5
E. debug dataplane packet-diag set capture on
Answer: A, C
QUESTION: 55
AfterpushingasecuritypolicyfromPanoramatoaPA-3020firwall,thefirewall
administrator notices that traffic logs from the PA-3020 are not appearing in Panorama�s
traffic logs. What could be the problem?
A. A Server Profile has not been configured for logging to this Panorama device.
B. Panorama is not licensed to receive logs from this particular firewall.
C. The firewall is not licensed for logging to this Panorama device.
D. None of the firwwall's policies have been assigned a Log Forwarding profile
Answer: D
QUESTION: 56
Which client software can be used to connect remote Linux client into a Palo Alto Networks
Infrastructure without sacrificing the ability to scan traffic and protect against threats?
A. X-Auth IPsec VPN
B. GlobalProtect Apple IOS
C. GlobalProtect SSL
D. GlobalProtect Linux
Answer: D
Explanation:
( http://blog.webernetz.net/2014/03/31/palo-alto-globalprotect-for-linux-with-vpnc/ )
QUESTION: 57
Which two interface types can be used when configuring GlobalProtect Portal?(Choose two)
A. Virtual Wire
B. Loopback
C. Layer 3
D. Tunnel
Answer: B, C
QUESTION: 58
Click the Exhibit button
An administrator has noticed a large increase in bittorrent activity. The administrator wants
to determine where the traffic is going on the company. What would be the administrator's
next step?
A. Right-Click on the bittorrent link and select Value from the context menu
B. Create a global filter for bittorrent traffic and then view Traffic logs.
C. Create local filter for bittorrent traffic and then view Traffic logs.
D. Click on the bittorrent application link to view network activity
Answer: D
QUESTION: 59
AcriticalUS-CERTnotificationispublishedregardinganewlydiscoveredbotnet.The
malwareisveryevasiveandisnotreliablydetectedbyendpointantivirussoftware.
Furthermore, SSL is used to tunnel malicious traffic to command-and-control servers on the
internet and SSL Forward Proxy Decryption is not enabled. Which component once enabled
onaperirneterfirewallwillallowtheidentificationofexistinginfectedhostsinan
environment?
A. Anti-Spyware profiles applied outbound security policies with DNS Query action set to
sinkhole
B. File Blocking profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to alert
C. Vulnerability Protection profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to
block
D. Antivirus profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to alert
Answer: C
QUESTION: 60
What are three possible verdicts that WildFire can provide for an analyzed sample? (Choose
three)
A. Clean
B. Bengin
C. Adware
D. Suspicious
E. Grayware
F. Malware
Answer: B, E, F
Explanation:
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/documentation/70/pan- os/newfeaturesguide/wildfire-
features/wildfire-grayware-verdict
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