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Question: 590
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has following storage spaces:
� Data
� Users
� Backups
� Primordial
You add an additional hard disk to Server1.
You need to identify which storage space contains the new hard disk.
Which storage space contains the new disk?
A. Primordial
B. Data
C. Backups
D. Users


Answer: A
Explanation:
New Disks (Unallocated space) added to Primordial space Primordial Pool? All storage that meets acceptable criteria for Storage Spaces will be placed in
the Primordial Pool. This can be considered the default pool for devices from which any other pools will be created. Notice that there are no other virtual
disks or pools at this point. The Primordial Pool will only consist of physical storage devices that do not belong to any other pools.


References:
http://blogs.technet.com/b/canitpro/archive/2012/12/13/storage-pools-dive-right-in.aspx
http://blogs.technet.com/b/askpfeplat/archive/2012/10/10/windows-server-2012-storagespaces-is- it for-youcould-be.aspx
Question: 591
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You create a group Managed Service Account named gservice1.
You need to configure a service named Service1 to run as the gservice1 account.
How should you configure Service1?
A. From a command prompt, run sc.exe and specify the config parameter.
B. From a command prompt, run sc.exe and specify the sdset parameter.
C. From the Services console, configure the General settings.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run Set-Service and specify the -PassThrough parameter.


Answer: A
Explanation:
Executing the sc.exe command with the config parameter will modify service configuration. To specify a binary path for the NEWSERVICE service, type: sc
config NewService binpath= "ntsd -d c:windowssystem32NewServ.exe"
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc990290.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc738230(v=ws.10).aspx
Question: 592

You have a server named Data1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard.
You need to configure Data1 to run a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum
amount of administrative effort.
What should you perform?
A. An online servicing by using Dism


B. An offline servicing by using Dism
C. An upgrade installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
D. A clean installation of Windows Server 2012 R2

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. Not least effort
B. Not least effort
C. dism /online /set-edition
D. offline would be less ideal and more work ex: DISM /online /Set-Edition:ServerEnterprise /ProductKey:489J6-VHDMP-X63PK-3K798-CPX3YWindows
Server 2008 R2/2012 contains a command-line utility called DISM (Deployment Image Servicing and Management tool). This tool has many features, but one
of those features is the ability to upgrade the edition of Windows in use. Note that this process is for upgrades only and is irreversible. You cannot set a
Windows image to a lower edition. The lowest edition will not appear when you run the /Get-Target Editions option. If the server is running an evaluation
version of Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard or Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter, you can convert it to a retail version as follows:
If the server is a domain controller, you cannot convert it to a retail version. In this case, install an additional domain controller on a server that runs a retail
version and remove AD DS from the domain controller that runs on the evaluation version. From an elevated command prompt, determine the current edition
name with the command DISM /online /Get-CurrentEdition. Make note of the edition ID, an abbreviated form of the edition name. Then run DISM /online
/Set-Edition:<edition ID> /ProductKey:XXXXXXXXXX-XXXXX-XXXXXXXXXX
/AcceptEula, providing the edition ID and a retail product key.
The server will restart twice.
There are a couple of ways to install the GUI from the command prompt, although both use the same tool -DISM (Deployment Image Service Manager).
When you are doing it for a single (local) server, the command is:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:�
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/windows/it-pro/windows-server-2012-R2-and-2012/jj574204(v=ws.11)
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/windows/it-pro/windows-7/dd744380(v=ws.10)
http://blogs.technet.com/b/server_core/archive/2009/10/14/upgrading-windows-server2008-r2-without-media.aspx
Question: 593
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and child.contoso.com and two sites named Site1 and Site2. The domains and the sites are configured as
shown in following table.


When the link between Site1 and Site2 fails, users fail to log on to Site2.
You need to identify what prevents the users in Site2 from logging on to the child.contoso.com domain.
What should you identify?
A. The placement of the infrastructure master
B. The placement of the global catalog server
C. The placement of the domain naming master
D. The placement of the PDC emulator

Answer: B

Explanation:
User logon. In a forest that has more than one domain, two conditions require the global catalog during user authentication:
In a domain that operates at the Windows 2000 native domain functional level or higher, domain controllers must request universal group membership
enumeration from a global catalog server. When a user principal name (UPN) is used at logon and the forest has more than one domain, a global catalog
server is required to resolve the name.
References:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc728188(v=ws.10).aspx
Question: 594

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You plan to create an image of Server1.
You need to remove the source files for all server roles that are not installed on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. dism.exe
B. servermanagercmd.exe
C. ocsetup.exe
D. imagex.exe


Answer: A

Explanation:
The Dism utility can be used to create and mount an image of Server1.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The ServerManagerCmd.exe command-line tool has been deprecated in Windows Server 2008 R2.
C: The Ocsetup.exe tool isused as a wrapper for Package Manager (Pkgmgr.exe) and for Windows Installer (Msiexec.exe). Ocsetup.exe is a command-line
utility that can be used to perform scripted installs and scripted uninstalls of Windows optional components. The Ocsetup.exe tool replaces the Sysocmgr.exe
tool that Windows XP and Windows Server 2003 use.
D: ImageX is a command-line tool in Windows Vista that you can use to create and manage Windows image (.wim) files. A .wim file contains one or more
volume images, disk volumes that contain images of an installed Windows operating system.
References:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh824822.aspx
http://blogs.technet.com/b/joscon/archive/2010/08/26/adding-features-with- dism.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831809.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh825265.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc749447(v=ws.10).aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd744382(v=ws.10).asp
Question: 595

Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.



You plan to schedule a complete backup of Server1 by using Windows Server Backup.
You need to ensure that the state of VM1 is saved before the backup starts.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization


Answer: I

Explanation:
Backup Operations in Hyper-V
No VSS Writer Available?
In some cases, you need an Application-consistent backup but there is no VSS writer available. One example of this is MySQL. Hyper-V backups of virtual
machines containing MySQL will always result in either a crash consistent or an image-level backup. For MySQL, the latter is probably acceptable as MySQL
doesn�t perpetually expand the log file. However, if you�re using MySQL within a VSS-aware VM, then a Hyper-Vbased backup tool is going to take a
crashconsistent backup. MySQL (like any other database system) isn�t always recoverable from a crash-consistent backup; tool is going to take a crash-
consistent backup. MySQL (like any other database system) isn�t always recoverable from a crash-consistent backup; even when recovery is possible, it may be
painful.
MySQL is just one example; any number of line-of-business Applications could tell a similar tale. In the case of MySQL, one solution is to find a guest-level
backup Application that is MySQL- aware and can back it up properly. For Applications for which no backup Application has a plug-in, you may need to have
preand post-backup scripts that stop services or close Applications. If brief downtime is acceptable, you can disable the Backup item in Hyper-V Integration
Services, thereby forcing Hyper-V to save the state of the VM during backup. This technique results in an image-level backup and can be used on any
Application that doesn�t have a VSS writer.



References: https://www.altaro.com/hyper-v/vss-crash-consistent-vs-application-consistent-vss-backups-post-2-of-2/
Question: 596

Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.



VM3 is used to test applications.
You need to prevent VM3 from synchronizing its clock to Server1.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization


Answer: I


Explanation:
Integration Services settings on virtual machines includes services such as operating system shutdown, time synchronization, data exchange, Heart beat, and
Backup (volume snapshot services. Thus you should disable the time synchronization using Integration Services.




References:
http://blogs.technet.com/b/virtualization/archive/2008/08/29/backing-up-hyper-v-virtual-machines.aspx
Exam Ref 70-410, Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure virtual machine
settings, p. 144
Question: 597
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.



VM2 sends and receives large amounts of data over the network.
You need to ensure that the network traffic of VM2 bypasses the virtual switches of the parent partition.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization


Answer: K



Explanation:
Single-root I/O virtualization -capable network adapters can be assigned directly to a virtual machine to maximize network throughput while minimizing
network latency and the CPU overhead required for processing network traffic.
References:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc766320(v=ws.10).aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831410.aspx
Exam Ref 70-410, Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure virtual machine
settings, p. 144
Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter 7: Hyper-V Virtualization, Lesson 2: Deploying and configuring virtual machines,
p. 335
Question: 598
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1.
You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The imagex.exe command
B. The ocsetup.exe command
C. The setup.exe command
D. The dism.exe command
E. The Install-Module cmdlet


Answer: D
Explanation:
The DISM command is called by the Add-WindowsFeature command. Here is the systax for DISM:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:Server- Gui-Shell /featurename:Server-Gui-Mgmt





Question: 599
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.




You install a network monitoring application on VM2.
You need to ensure that all of the traffic sent to VM3 can be captured on VM2.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney


E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization


Answer: J

Explanation:
What�s New in Hyper-V Virtual Switch
Port Mirroring
With Port Mirroring, traffic sent to or from a Hyper-V Virtual Switch port is copied and sent to a mirror port.
There are a range of applications for port mirroring an entire ecosystem of network visibility companies exist that have products designed to consume port
mirror data for performance management, security analysis, and network diagnostics. With Hyper-V Virtual Switch port mirroring, you can select the switch
ports that are monitored as well as the switch port that receives copies of all the traffic.
The following examples configure port mirroring so that all traffic that is sent and received by both MyVM and MyVM2 is also sent to the VM named
MonitorVM.
Set-VMNetworkAdapter VMName MyVM PortMirroring Source
Set-VMNetworkAdapter VMName MyVM2 PortMirroring Source
Set-VMNetworkAdapter VMName MonitorVM PortMirroring Destination
References: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj679878.aspx#bkmk_portmirror


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QUESTION: 62

How is a service ticket used when constructing a Cisco APIC-EM API request?


A. to identify the service type
B. to identify a service on the controller
C. to determine the request type
D. as a security token



Answer: B


QUESTION: 63


The network operator asks you to change the config setting on one specific host. All 300
hosts are managed with Puppet. Which action results m the requested Change?



A. This is an unsupported feature of Puppet, and Chef or Ansible must be used to make
this change.



B. Go to that host and make the config change. Puppet sees the local override and skips


that part.
C. Add anif statement to the Puppet manifest, and add specific config settings, in case




Puppet is running on that host.

D. Add a node-based variable lookup override in Hiera, so that if Puppet runs on that host,

it takes the variable from Hiera.



Answer: B


QUESTION: 64
Which two data representation formats are used in RESTCONF? (Choose two.)


A. HTML
B. YAML
C. XML
D. GML
E. ASN.1
F. JSON


Answer: A, B


QUESTION: 65
Whichfeatureenablesservicefunctionchainingtosteertraffictovirtualnetwork

functions?


A. GRE
B. VXLA
C. EH
D. NSH
E. REST


Answer: D



QUESTION: 66
Refer to the exhibit.



Which action effectively secures the controller?


A. Enable HTTP to HTTPS redirect.
B. Require complex passwords.
C. Use NAT on the router before the controller.
D. Blacklist the public WAN.

E. Whitelist the Admins network and block all others.



Answer: C


QUESTION: 67

WhichstatementindicatesthatanelementinaYANGdatamodelcontainsdatathat

describes operational state information about the device or service?


A. state true



B. config false
C. mode state
D. state enabled



Answer: B


QUESTION: 68
Drag and drop the protocol on the loft to its correct description on the right.




Answer:




QUESTION: 69
Which two tools help you to program against Nexus APIs? (Choose two.)


A. Jenkins
B. Cisco Nexus 1000v
C. VIRL
D. DevNet sandboxes
E. Cisco Open SDN Controller



Answer: A, C


QUESTION: 70

Which statement about shading in ACI is true?


A. Sharding is the technology that is designed to prevent "split-brain" scenarios in ACI
B. Sharding is the service that presents the API on a Cisco APIC

C. Sharding is the mechanism for distributing the database and configuration changes on a

Cisco APIC cluster.
D. Sharding is the distributed topology that is used in ACI (also referred to as spine-leaf).


Answer: B


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QUESTION: 56

A client is failing EAP authentication and a debug shows that the server is sending an
Access-Reject message. Which action must you take to resolve authentication?


A. Verify that the Validate server certificate on the client is disabled.
B. Verify that the client certificates are from the proper CA and server certificate.

C. Verify that the client server certificate has the proper Windows OlDs.
D. Verify that the user account is the same in the client certificate.
E. Verify that the user is using the same password that is on the server


Answer: B



QUESTION: 57
When implementing interface groups, how are the IP addresses sourced via DHCP for
wireless clients?


A. through the primary interface of the group
B. through round robin between interfaces
C. through interface group definition
D. through the interface receiving the first response


Answer: B


QUESTION: 58

Which three steps would a network engineer use to troubleshoot an AP join problem?

(Choose three.)


A. Validate the STP configuration.
B. Verify the ping AP from the controller.
C. Verify the ping AP from the client.
D. Verify that the AP is getting an address from the DHCP server.
E. I Validate the SNMP configuration.
F. Verify the authentication configuration parameters.


Answer: A, B,
F

QUESTION: 59
An engineer has run the debug dhcp packet enable command on the wireless LAN
controller CLI. Which field contacts the IP address offered to the client?


A. siaddr
B. ciaddr
C. chaddr
D. yiaddr
E. giaddr


Answer: C


QUESTION: 60
Refer to the exhibit.




Access points ate deployed in an office building and users report that thereal-time
communications quality of experience is poor when users walk between the elevators




The elevators are a heavy metallic obstacle, and AP 3 was installed to cover the
elevator area, which AP t and AP 2 signal does not reach Communications are
captured for a user walking from point A to point C. and it is observed that the user
iPhone device suddenly scans all bands and then roams from AP I to AP 3 somewhere
between points B and C WLAN is set to 5 GHz only. Open, default rate configuration.
Which action improves the real-time application quality of experience in this area?


A. Enable 802 11v on the WLAN
B. Enable 802 11r on the WLAN
C. Enable 802 11k on the WLAN
D. Move AP 2 to point B


Answer: B




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Question: 240
Which of these reasons can cause intrasite calls within a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster to fail?
A. The route partition that is configured in the CCD requesting service is not listed in the calling phone CSS.
B. The trunk CSS does not include the partition for the called directory number.
C. The MGCP gateway is not registered.
D. The calling phone does not have the correct CSS configured.
E. The calling phone does not have the correct partition configured.
Answer: D

Question: 241
You must integrate a third-party H.323 system with your existing Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. When you create an H.323 trunk from the cluster, calls from the cluster to the third-party H.323
system are failing. The vendor of the third-party H.323 device has confirmed that the H.323 call setup time must be reduced. Which two approaches reduce the call setup time from Cisco Unified Communications
Manager to the third-party H.323 device? (Choose two.)
A. Implement a software MTP.
B. Implement a hardware MTP.
C. Implement transcoding with the router DSP resources.
D. Implement transcoding with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager resources.
Answer: A,B

Question: 242
Which two troubleshooting tools would initially be the best to use when troubleshooting the PSTN gateway side of a call routing issue while using Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. RTMT trace output
B. Cisco IOS debug commands
C. Dialed Number Analyzer output
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager alerts
E. Cisco IOS show commands
Answer: B,E
Question: 243
When a database replication issue is suspected, which three tools can be used to check the database replication status? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager RTMT tool
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Serviceability interface
C. Cisco Unified Reporting
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CLI interface
E. Cisco IP Phone Device Stats from the Settings button
F. Cisco Unified OS Administration interface

Answer: A,C,D
Question: 244
To maintain proper database integrity, what is the recommended maximum round-trip delay between multiple Cisco VCS appliances in a cluster?
A. 10 ms
B. 15 ms
C. 25 ms
D. 30 ms
E. 50 ms
F. 80 ms
Answer: D

Question: 245
You are trying to register an H.323-based Cisco TelePresence system to Cisco Unified Communications Manager and a Cisco DX70 system to the Cisco VCS Control. Why do neither of the units want to register?
A. The H.323-based system needs an E164 number to register to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, and the Cisco DX70 needs to have the MAC address configured first on the Cisco VCS Control.
B. The H.323-based system needs to register to the Cisco VCS Control with an E.164 number, and the Cisco DX70 needs the TFTP address to register on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. Both systems need to register to the Cisco VCS Control, but the H.323-based system needs to have the gatekeeper setting set to �Direct.�
D. Both systems need to register to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, as the Cisco VCS Control is used only for firewall traversal.
E. You need Cisco TelePresence Management Suite to register Cisco TelePresence systems.
F. You need Cisco TelePresence Server to register Cisco TelePresence systems.
Answer: B
Question: 246
Endpoints are configured for both H.323 and SIP using the same URI and Cisco VCS settings, but the endpoints register only as H.323 endpoints. What is causing this issue?
A. A firewall is blocking all traffic from the endpoints to the Cisco VCS.
B. The Cisco VCS has no SIP domains configured.
C. The Cisco VCS is blocking the endpoints because of duplicate ID entries.
D. The endpoints do not have the SIP option key installed.
E. SIP does not work, because SIP is used for Cisco Unified Communications Manager registration only.

Answer: B
Question: 247



Which issue would cause an MGCP gateway to fail to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. missing the configuration command isdn bind-l3 ccm-manager under the ISDN interface
B. mismatched domain name on the MGCP gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager gateway configuration
C. misconfigured route group in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. incorrect MGCP IP address specified in the gateway configuration in Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Answer: B

Question: 248
You configured a Cisco ISR G2 as a SIP gateway, but the gateway does not show that it is registered with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
What is causing this issue?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not support SIP gateways.
B. The gateway does not have the UC license installed.
C. The gateway does not have Cisco Unified Border Element session licensing.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not show a SIP gateway as registered if it is not properly configured.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager never shows a SIP gateway as registered even when it is properly configured.
F. The Cisco ISR G2 cannot be a SIP gateway.
Answer: E
Question: 249
Refer to the exhibit.



An IP phone that is connected through a Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch is failing to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager. When the user presses the settings button on the phone, the Operational
VLAN ID shows a blank entry. What is the most likely cause for this issue?
A. The switch may not be supplying inline power.
B. The spanning tree portfast command needs to be removed.
C. The trunk encapsulation is missing. The trunk must be configured for dot1.Q.
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol is disabled on the switch.
E. The Operational VLAN ID of the phone always shows as blank. The Admin. VLAN ID should be 110.
Answer: D
Question: 250
An IP phone that is connected through a Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch is failing to register with the subscriber as a backup server. When the user presses the settings button on the phone, only the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager publisher shows as registered. What is the most likely cause for this issue?
A. The phone does not have the correct Cisco Unified Communications Manager group in the device configuration page.
B. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager group that is applied through the device pool is misconfigured.
C. The ip-helper address command for the subscriber is not configured on the switch port.
D. The subscriber does not have the correct device pool configured.
E. The enterprise phone configuration does not have the call control redundancy enabled.

Answer: B


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ON: 461

 The doctor was known as a charlatan over the years of his practice. Charlatan means...


 A. Quack.
 B. Knowledgeable physician.
 C. Procedural physician.
 D. Medical examiner.


 Answer: A



 QUESTION: 462

 The wound exhibited signs of copious drainage requiring medical intervention. Copious means...


 A. Minimal.
 B. Clear.
 C. Maximal.
 D. Foul.


 Answer: C



 QUESTION: 463

 The attorney accused the witness of defaming the defendant. Defaming means...


 A. Killing.
 B. Badgering.
 C. Suffocating.
 D. Slandering.


 Answer: D



 QUESTION: 464
 The detective was able to derive the facts of the case. Derive means...



 A. Desist.
 B. Deter.
 C. Devise.


 D. Deduce.


 Answer: D



 QUESTION: 465

 The scientist was able to evoke powerful emotions from her audience. Evoke means...


 A. Sell.
 B. Calm.
 C. Call forth.
 D. Exaggerate.


 Answer: C



 QUESTION: 466

 The judge was fallible during deliberation. Fallible means...


 A. Careful not to err.
 B. Falsely accused.
 C. Loyal to his supporters.
 D. Capable of mistakes.


 Answer: D



 QUESTION: 467

 The chemist collected the germane data during the experiment. Germane means...



 A. Relevant.
 B. Obscure.
 C. Limited.
 D. Usual.


 Answer: A



 QUESTION: 468




 The desperados held up in a grotto in New Mexico during the escape. Grotto means...


 A. Large cave.
 B. Small cavern.
 C. Hotel.
 D. Motel.


 Answer: B



 QUESTION: 469

 The official exhibited a heedless attitude when dealing with the dignitaries. Heedless means...


 A. Thoughtless.
 B. Pleasant.
 C. Friendly.
 D. Bitter.


 Answer: A



 QUESTION: 470
 The Sherman tank commander noted innumerable troops moving forward against his position.



 Innumerable means...


 A. Limited.
 B. Weary.
 C. Countless.
 D. Harmless.


 Answer: C



 QUESTION: 471

 The general tried to instill in his troops the hope of victory. Instill means...


 A. Infuse.
 B. Delay.
 C. Inscribe.




 D. Indict.


 Answer: A



 QUESTION: 472

 The winning team of the World Series often has a jovial attitude. Jovial means...


 A. Merry.
 B. Sad.
 C. Somber.
 D. Laborious.


 Answer: A



 QUESTION: 473
 The plant entered the latent phase of development in the fall. Latent means...



 A. First.
 B. Growth.
 C. Last.
 D. Dormant.


 Answer: D



 Section 41: Sec Forty One (474 to 483)


 Details: Wave Practice Questions:



 QUESTION: 474

 Wave velocity is a product of _______ and ________.


 A. Wavelength and Phase angle
 B. Frequency and Wavelength
 C. Phase Angle and Frequency
 D. Amplitude and Frequency



 Answer: B



 QUESTION: 475

 The calculation for a period of a wave (T) is indicted as the formula?



 A. T = 1/?

 B. T = ?
 C. T = ?v

 D. T = ?/v


 Answer: A


 QUESTION: 476



 The driver of a car sounds a horn while traveling toward a stationary person. Compared to the

 sound of the horn heard by the driver, the sound heard by the stationary person has?


 A. Lower pitch and shorter wavelength
 B. Lower pitch and longer wavelength
 C. Higher pitch and shorter wavelength
 D. Higher pitch and longer wavelength


 Answer: C



 QUESTION: 477

 As a sound wave travels through air there is a net transfer of ____.


 A. Energy only
 B. Mass only
 C. Both Mass and Energy
 D. Neither Mass or Energy


 Answer: A


 QUESTION: 478
 As a wave travels through a medium, the particles of the wave vibrate in the direction of the



 wave's travel. What type of wave is traveling through the medium?
 152



 A. Longitudina
 B. Torsional
 C. Transverse
 D. Hyperbolic


 Answer: A


 QUESTION: 479



 A wave completes one vibration as it moves a distance of 2 meters at a speed of 20 meters per
 second. What is the frequency of the wave?


 A. 10 Hz
 B. 2 Hz
 C. 20 Hz
 D. 40 Hz


 Answer: A



 QUESTION: 480
 What is the period of a wave, if 20 crests pass an observer in 4 seconds?



 A. 80 s
 B. .2 s
 C. 5 s
 D. 4 s


 Answer: B


 QUESTION: 481
 Twowavestraveling in
thesamemediuminterferetoproduceastanding wave.Whatisthe
 phase difference between the 2 waves at a node?


 A. 0 degrees
 B. 90 degrees
 C. 180 degrees



 D. 360 degrees


 Answer: C


 QUESTION: 482

 As a pulse travels along a rope, the pulse loses energy and its amplitude


 A. Decreases
 B. Increases
 C. Remains the same


 Answer: A


 QUESTION: 483

 Compared to the wavelengths of visible light the wavelengths of UV light are


 A. Shorter
 B. Longer
 C. The Same


 Answer: A



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 Answer: B, E

 Explanation:
 (https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/documentation/60/panorama/panoramaadminguide/se
 t-up-panorama/set-up-the-m-100-appliance)


 QUESTION: 52

 Which three log-forwarding destinations require a server profile to be configured? (Choose
 three)


 A. SNMP Trap
 B. Email
 C. RADIUS
 D. Kerberos
 E. Panorama
 F. Syslog



 Answer: A, B, F


 QUESTION: 53

 Which three fields can be included in a pcap filter? (Choose three)


 A. Egress interface
 B. Source IP
 C. Rule number
 D. Destination IP
 E. Ingress interface


 Answer: B, D, E


 Explanation:
 (https://live.paloaltonetworks.com/t5/Featured-Articles/Getting-Started-Packet-Capture/ta-
 p/72069)


 QUESTION: 54

 The company's Panorama server(IP 10.10.10.5) is not able to manage a firewall that was



 recently deployed. The firewall's dedicated management port is being used to connect to the
 managementnetwork. Which two commands may be used to troubleshoot this issue from

 the CLI of the new firewall? (Choose two)

 A. test panoramas-connect 10.10.10.5
 B. show panoramas-status
 C. show arp all I match 10.10.10.5
 D. topdump filter "host 10.10.10.5
 E. debug dataplane packet-diag set capture on



 Answer: A, C


 QUESTION: 55

 AfterpushingasecuritypolicyfromPanoramatoaPA-3020firwall,thefirewall




 administrator notices that traffic logs from the PA-3020 are not appearing in Panorama�s
 traffic logs. What could be the problem?


 A. A Server Profile has not been configured for logging to this Panorama device.
 B. Panorama is not licensed to receive logs from this particular firewall.

 C. The firewall is not licensed for logging to this Panorama device.
 D. None of the firwwall's policies have been assigned a Log Forwarding profile


 Answer: D


 QUESTION: 56
 Which client software can be used to connect remote Linux client into a Palo Alto Networks

 Infrastructure without sacrificing the ability to scan traffic and protect against threats?


 A. X-Auth IPsec VPN
 B. GlobalProtect Apple IOS
 C. GlobalProtect SSL
 D. GlobalProtect Linux



 Answer: D

 Explanation:
 ( http://blog.webernetz.net/2014/03/31/palo-alto-globalprotect-for-linux-with-vpnc/ )




 QUESTION: 57

 Which two interface types can be used when configuring GlobalProtect Portal?(Choose two)


 A. Virtual Wire
 B. Loopback
 C. Layer 3


 D. Tunnel



 Answer: B, C


 QUESTION: 58
 Click the Exhibit button


 An administrator has noticed a large increase in bittorrent activity. The administrator wants



 to determine where the traffic is going on the company. What would be the administrator's


 next step?


 A. Right-Click on the bittorrent link and select Value from the context menu
 B. Create a global filter for bittorrent traffic and then view Traffic logs.
 C. Create local filter for bittorrent traffic and then view Traffic logs.
 D. Click on the bittorrent application link to view network activity


 Answer: D


 QUESTION: 59
 AcriticalUS-CERTnotificationispublishedregardinganewlydiscoveredbotnet.The
 malwareisveryevasiveandisnotreliablydetectedbyendpointantivirussoftware.



 Furthermore, SSL is used to tunnel malicious traffic to command-and-control servers on the
 internet and SSL Forward Proxy Decryption is not enabled. Which component once enabled


 onaperirneterfirewallwillallowtheidentificationofexistinginfectedhostsinan


 environment?


 A. Anti-Spyware profiles applied outbound security policies with DNS Query action set to
 sinkhole
 B. File Blocking profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to alert


 C. Vulnerability Protection profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to
 block
 D. Antivirus profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to alert


 Answer: C


 QUESTION: 60
 What are three possible verdicts that WildFire can provide for an analyzed sample? (Choose




 three)


 A. Clean
 B. Bengin
 C. Adware
 D. Suspicious
 E. Grayware
 F. Malware


 Answer: B, E, F


 Explanation:
 https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/documentation/70/pan- os/newfeaturesguide/wildfire-
 features/wildfire-grayware-verdict

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QUESTION:74
Refer to the command line display below: vsan database
vsan 1000 name FCoE vlan 1000
fcoe vlan 1000 int e1/1
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1000 no shut
int vfc10
bind interface e1/1
switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000 no shut
On which line does the error occur that prevents FCoE from operating correctly in a
Cisco Nexus switch?



A. fcoe vlan 1000
B. switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
C. int vfc10
D. bind interface e1/1


Answer: A



QUESTION:75
Which /etc/exports line will allow you to enable read-only access from the NFS client
192.168.1.100?




A. /images 192.168.1.100 (ro,async)
B. /images 192.168.1.100 (755,async)
C. /images 192.168.1.1/24 (755,no_root_squash,async)
D. /images 192.168.1.1/27 (ro,async)



Answer: A



QUESTION:76
Which of these are hypervisors typically utilized in a modern data center?




A. VMware, HyperV, Linux
B. ESXi, HyperV, Linux
C. ESXi, HyperV, KVM
D. VMware, HyperV, KVM


Answer: C


QUESTION:77
Which of the following is not a function of APIC?


A. Control plane
B. Policy
C. GUI
D. Fabric management
E. API


Answer: A


QUESTION:78
Which of the following are true about Infrastructure as a Service? (Choose all that
apply.)


A. Most typical consumers are IT administrators.
B. Virtualization technologies are mandatory for the implementation of IaaS.
C. IaaS basically offers computing hardware for its consumers.
D. Among all service models, IaaS is the least flexible option.


Answer: A, C


QUESTION:79
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model?


A. distributed
B. private




C. community
D. hybrid



Answer: A




QUESTION:80
Which three options are the advantages of VXLAN? (Choose three.)




A. Increase of VLAN address space
B. Support multi-tenancy
C. Connectivity across disparate virtual data centers
D. Uses Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention
E. Configure Portgroup Virtual port ID
F. Configure Portgroup Load Based Teaming



Answer: A, B, C




QUESTION:81
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)



A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier



Answer: C, D



QUESTION:82
Which three options are Common Cloud characteristics? (Choose three.)



A. single tenancy
B. elasticity
C. ubiquitous network access
D. metered service




E. QoS



Answer: B, C, D

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QUESTION: 84
You have a 32-bit application named App1. Your company uses the following
device types:
 � Windows tablets
� Android tablets
� iOS tablets
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that App1 can be used on all devices.
What should you recommend?


A. an app package (.appx)
B. a RemoteApp program
C. a Windows Installer (MSI) package
D. A Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) application


Answer: B


QUESTION: 85
DRAG DROP
Your network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The
domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and a
client computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 8.1 Enterprise. You create a
share on Server1 named Share1. On Computer1, you need to perform a Click-to-
Run installation of Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus from Share1. You extract the
Office Deployment Tool for Click-to-Run on Server1. Which three actions should
you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of
actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.





Answer:
Exhibit



QUESTION: 86
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com that has two
sites named Site1 and Site2. The contoso.com domain contains two servers named
Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The Microsoft Deployment
Toolkit (MDT) is installed on both of the servers. Server1 is located in Site1 and
Server2 is located in Site2.
You perform the following actions on Server1:
� Import an operating system.
� Import drivers.
� Create a task sequence.
You copy the deployment share from Server1 to Server2 and you open the share on

Server2 as MDTShare2.You discover that clients that connect to MDTShare2 are

deployed from Server1. You need to ensure that the clients that connect to
MDTShare2 are deployed from Server2. What should you modify on Server2?


A. Bootstrap.ini
B. Customsettings.ini
C. The Rules properties of MDTShare2
D. the General properties of MDTShare2


Answer: A

References:
http://www.toddlamothe.com/deployment/customizing-bootstrap-mdt.htm


QUESTION: 87
You maintain a base operating system image for your company. The image does not
contain hardware-specific drivers. The image is distributed to the desktop support
team, which is responsible for maintaining a driver repository on a file share named

Share1. You have a client computer named Client1 that runs Windows 8.1
Enterprise. Client1 will be used as the reference computer for the next version of
the base image. You plan to generalize Client1, capture an image of Client1, and




then distribute the image to the desktop support team. You need to configure a
Sysprep answer file to ensure that the next time the image starts, device drivers
from Share1 are added to the local driver repository. The solution must ensure that
the drivers are added without entering the Out-of-Box-Experience (OOBE) phase.
Which configuration pass in the unattended file should you configure?


A. specialize
B. auditSystem
C. generalize
D. windowsPE


Answer: D

References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-gb/library/cc749307(v=ws.10).aspx


QUESTION: 88

You plan to deploy Windows 8.1 Enterprise to new client computers. You have a
Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager site that is configured to
deploy operating system images to computers. Currently, any user can install any
image. You need to ensure that images can be downloaded by authorized users
only. What should you modify?


A. the security scope of the boot images
B. the properties of the boot images
C. the properties of the distribution points
D. the security scope of the install images


Answer: D

References:

https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc732961(v=ws.10).aspx#BKMK_4


QUESTION: 89
You have five Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Servers.

The servers are configured as shown in the following table.




You need to ensure that the servers in the Seattle, Montreal, and New York City
sites contain the same application packages. The solution must minimize
administrative effort. Which cmdlet should you run first?


A. New-CMBoundaryGroup
B. Add-CMDistributionPoint
C. New-CMDistributionPointGroup
D. Add-CMBoundaryToGroup


Answer: C

References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-gb/library/hh427335.aspx


QUESTION: 90
DRAG DROP
You have a client computer that runs Windows 8.1 Enterprise. The client computer
has the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) installed. You

plan to capture images from Windows PE by running the New-Windowslmage
cmdlet. You mount a custom image of Windows PE. You need to identify which

three components must be added to the image. Which three components should you
add in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate components from the list of
components to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.





Answer:
Exhibit




QUESTION: 91
You have a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration

Manager that is used to perform Windows 8.1 installations. You have a Task

sequence named TS1. TS1 is only available to client computers that have the
Configuration Manager client installed and are in a collection named Collection1.
You need to use TS1 to perform bare-metal deployments to new client computers.
What should you do?


A. Redeploy TS1.
B. Modify the deployments of TS1.
C. Modify the properties of TS1.
D. Modify the security scope of TS1.


Answer: A


QUESTION: 92
DRAG DROP
You have a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server named WDS1 that is
used to deploy operating system images. You have a WIM file that contains an

image of Windows8.1 Enterprise. You need to ensure that you can use WDS1 to
deploy native-boot VHDs of Windows 8.1 Enterprise. Which three actions should
you perform in sequence on WDS1? To answer, move the appropriate actions from
the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.


Answer:
Exhibi


QUESTION: 93

Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest

has a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager.
You plan to add a server named Server1 as a distribution point. Server1 will be used
only by client computers on the internal network that run Windows 8.1 Enterprise.

The Windows Deployment Services serverrole will NOT be installed on Server1.
You need to identify which firewall port on Server1 must be open to ensure that

Configuration Manager clients can download application packages from Server1.

Which TCP port should you identify?


A. 53
B. 8080
C. 443
D. 636


Answer: C




QUESTION: 94
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com. You plan
to deploy Windows 8.1 Enterprise to all client computers. As part of the
deployment, the operating system volumes of the client computers will be
encrypted by using BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker). You need to ensure
that when Windows 8.1 Enterprise is deployed, each operating system volume can
be encrypted only when the recovery key information is backed up successfully to
Active Directory. Which Group Policy setting should you configure?


A. Store BitLocker recovery information in Active Directory Domain Services
(Windows Server 2008 and Windows Vista).
B. Choose default folder for recovery password.
C. Configure TPM platform validation profile (Windows Vista, Windows Server
2008, Windows 7, Windows Server 2008 R2).
D. Choose how BitLocker-protected operating system drives can be recovered.


Answer: D

References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-gb/library/ee424303(v=ws.10).aspx


QUESTION: 95
You have a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server named WDS1. WDS1 is
used to deploy an image of Windows 8.1 Pro named Image1 to the computersin a
classroom. The computers are redeployed every day. WDS1 only contains one
install image. Every morning on each computer, a technician must press F12, and

then choose Image1. You need to automate the process of deploying Image1 to the
computers. Image1 must be deployed automatically to the computers when they are
turned on. Which two actions should you perform on WDS1? Each correct answer
presents part of the solution.


A. Configure a Multicast Transmission.
B. Configure the Network settings.
C. Configure the Boot settings.
D. Configure the PXE Response settings.
E. Configure the Client settings.



Answer: C, D

References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc771788(v=ws.10).aspx




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slots.
D. PCI-X adapters are supported on POWER8 with AIX Enterprise Edition.


Answer: A



QUESTION: 55
A customer is concerned about Power Systems security in a virtualized
environment. They want realtime monitoring and a trusted firewall between
LPARs. Which IBM product should be proposed?


A. IBM Security Access Manager for Enterprise Single Sign-On
B. PowerSC
C. Tivoli Security Policy Manager
D. PowerVM



Answer: B


QUESTION: 56

A customer has a Blade Center S (BCS) with a POWER6 blade. They want to

upgrade to POWER8 with 8 cores, 12 internal drives with room for growth, and an
external LTO tape drive. Which of the following is the lowest cost recommendation
to satisfy their requirement?


A. S814
B. POWER8 blade in the current BCS
C. S822
D. S824


Answer: B



QUESTION: 57
A customer wants to know how CAPI can benefit their operations. What is a CAPI
benefit?


A. Ability for a shared memory space between an application and an FPGA
accelerator.

B. Ability for faster access to system memory from the POWER8 processor.



C. Ability for POWER8 LPARs to suspend / resume.
D. Ability to accelerate all database solutions.



Answer: A


QUESTION: 58

A customer will order a POWER8 hardware solution that was proposed.

Which of the following should be used to create and submit the appropriate

hardware solution to IB manufacturing?


A. e-config
B. System planning tool
C. IBM Lab Services
D. HMC scanner



Answer: C


QUESTION: 59
A customer wants to simplify virtualization management and specifically wants the
ability to capture and deploy images of the virtual environment.

In addition to PowerVM, which software product will satisfy the requirement?


A. PowerHA System Mirror
B. IBM Cloud PowerVC Manager
C. PowerVP
D. PowerKVM



Answer: B


QUESTION: 60

Which of the following is true concerning SAP HANA on POWER8?


A. When considering SAP in-memory HANA Database, IBM Power Systems

should be sold as an SAP HANA appliance.
B. SAP HANA requirements can be mapped to any SAP certified POWER8
processor-based system, as long as it provides the resources.
C. The IBM Power SAP HANA server decision has to be made to fit only the



memory footprint requirements because of its in-memory design characteristics.
D. SAP HANA on Power Systems configurations should focus only on the database
instance itself.



Answer: C


QUESTION: 61
A customer requires redundant VIO Servers booting from local disk on their E870.

What should be included with an E870 to satisfy the customer's requirement?


A. Dual SAS drives in the nodes
B. EXP24S disk drawer
C. Split backplane
D. Dual Solid-State Drives in the nodes



Answer: C


QUESTION: 62
A customer requires eight virtual machines. Which of the following operating
system choices will provide the greatest advantage in Total Acquisition for
POWER8 hardware and software?


A. IBM i
B. VIOS
C. Red Hat
D. AIX



Answer: A




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 Answer: /tmp, tmp, /var/tmp, /tmp/, /var/tmp/


 QUESTION: 110

 In which directory must definition files be placed to add additional repositories to
 yum?


 Answer: /etc/yum.repos.d, /etc/yum.repos.d/, yum.repos.d, yum.repos.d/



 QUESTION: 111
 What is the name of the main configuration file for GNU GRUB? (Specify the file
 name only without any path.)


 Answer: menu.lst, grub.conf, grub.cfg


 QUESTION: 112


 Which option to the yum command will update the entire system? (Specify ONLY
 the option name without any additional parameters.)


 Answer: update, upgrade


 QUESTION: 113

 Which command will disable swapping on a device? (Specify ONLY the command
 without any path or parameters.)


 Answer: swapoff, /sbin/swapoff


 QUESTION: 114

 Which Debian package management tool asks the configuration questions for a

 specific already installed package just as if the package were being installed for the

 first time? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)


 Answer: dpkg-reconfigure




 QUESTION: 115
 Which signal is missing from the following command that is commonly used to
 instruct a daemon to reinitialize itself, including reading configuration files?



 killall -s daemon


 Answer: HUP, SIGHUP, 1


 QUESTION: 116

 Which command displays a list of all background tasks running in the current shell?
 (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)


 Answer: jobs


 QUESTION: 117
 Which Bash environment variable defines in which file the user history is stored
 when exiting a Bash process? (Specify ONLY the variable name.)


 Answer:HISTFILE


 QUESTION: 118
 Which command is used in a Linux environment to create a new directory? (Specify

 ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)


 Answer: mkdir, /usr/bin/mkdir


 QUESTION: 119

 Which command is used to create and initialize the files used to store quota
 information? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)


 Answer: quotacheck


 QUESTION: 120
 Which umask value will result in the default access permissions of 600 (rw-------)

 for files and 700 (rwx------) for directories? (Specify only the numerical umask


 value.)


 Answer: 0077, 077




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Question: 94


You have two price lists described as shown in the following table



You create an opportunity that uses Pricelist1. The opportunity contains line items for Product 1 and Product 3 You
add a write-in product named Product 5 that has a price of SS.
You change the opportunity to use Pricelist 2, and then you add Product 2.
You need to identify which products are listed in the opportunity.
What should you identify?
A. Product 1 with a price of $15
Product 2 with a price of $20
Product 3 with a price of $10
Product 5 with a price of $8
B. Product 1 with a Price of $15
Product 2 with a price of $20
Product 5 with a price of $8
Product 3 removed
C. Product 1 with a price of $10
Product 2 with a price of $20
Product 3 with a price of $10
Product 5 with a price of $8
D. Product 2 with a price of $20
Product 5 with a price of $8
Product 1 and Product 3 removed



Answer: A

Question: 95


You create a personal dashboard that tracks important sales information.
Your manager wants all of the users in the company to use the dashboard.
You need to recommend a method to make the dashboard available to all of the users. The solution must minimize
effort.
What should you recommend?
A. Export the definitions of the dashboard components, and then import the components.
B. Ask an administrator to recreate the dashboard as a system dashboard.
C. Ask an administrator to share the dashboard with all of the users.
D. Edit the properties of the dashboard, and then assign the dashboard.




Answer: C

Question: 96


After two months of communicating with a prospect your organization is ready to provide a formal offer for
products and to the prospect. You need to ensure the record is correct in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which item should you create to represent this formal offer?
A. Opportunity
B. Quote
C. Lead
D. Order



Answer: B


Question: 97

You are a sales person for a large automobile dealership.
You created a lead within Microsoft Dynamics 365 for a potential customer who was interested in a current sales
event at your dealership.
The potential customer selected a new car but was unable to finance it due to bad credit. The potential customer has
given up for the time being How should you modify the record to update it for this sales opportunity?
A. Close as Lost
B. Close as Won
C. Close as Disgualified
D. Close as Canceled




Answer: A

Question: 98

You are working with the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Phones app.
You have created a new Opportunity to track information that could lead to a sale while visiting a customer and
have a Business Process Flow at the Qualify stage.
You need to be able to update the record with information for qualifying the Opportunity.
What are three items you can capture on the Opportunity to help you manage this opportunity through to a sale?
Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. tracking product returns
B. tracking activities related to the opportunity
C. tracking Invoice adjustment notes
D. tracking competitors
E. tracking the products in which the customer is interested



Answer: B,D,E


Question: 99

You notice that all of your current customers are stored in Microsoft Dynamics 365 as Account records You need
to create records for other organizations you work with to support your customers.
These organizations represent vendors, partners, and distributors.
What record type should you use for these organizations?
A. Account
B. Prospect
C. Organization
D. Company



Answer: A


Question: 100

You are a sales manager.
You need to have a formal way for your sales staff to track your competitor information against over the course of
the year.
Which three areas in Microsoft Dynamics 365 allow you to track this information? Each correct answer presents a
complete solution
A. Opportunities
B. Tasks
C. Sales literature
D. Cases
E. Products



Answer: A,C,E


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 QUESTION:53
 After the iLO has been discovered, an administrator is unable to perform group firmware
 updates to their DL380 Gen10 server. What should the administrator check to diagnose
 the problem? (Select two.)



 A. whether the information has been configured on the iLO
 B. whether single sign-on is enabled on the iLO
 C. whether the iLO has been added to the DEFAULT users group
 D. whether the Configure iLO Settings privilege has been added to the group
 E. whether the iLO has the Advanced license applied



 Answer: A, D



 QUESTION:54
 A customer needs to perform detailed inventory reporting as part a multi-server PoC.
 What must you include as part of the solution?




 A. iLO Advanced
 B. iLO Advanced Premium Security
 C. iLO Essentials
 D. iLO Amplifier Pack



 Answer: D

 Reference:
 https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=c05384285



 QUESTION:55
 A customer is evaluating HPE Gen10 ProLiant server options. They want to test the
 ability to erase all user data so that it is irrecoverable. Which license option will they
 need?








 A. iLO Advanced Premium Security Edition
 B. iLO Advanced
 C. OneView Advanced
 D. OneView without iLO


 Answer: A

 Reference:
 https://www.hpe.com/emea_europe/en/servers/integrated-lights-out-ilo.html


 QUESTION:56
 DRAG DROP
 Match the SSD drive type to the intended workload.





 Your customer wants to use HPE OneView to update firmware for a new HPE
 BladeSystem enclosures. Which HPE OneView license is required?


 A. iLO Advanced
 B. OneView Advanced
 C. iLO Advanced Premium Security Edition
 D. OneView Standard










 Answer: B


 QUESTION:58
 You are troubleshooting an issue with a ProLiant Service and need to revert to the initial
 configuration. During the process, you forget some of the previous configuration
 changes made. Which HPE tool can you use to recall all the configuration changes
 made?


 A. IML Log
 B. iLO Syslog
 C. Active Health System Viewer
 D. OneView Event Viewer


 Answer: A


 QUESTION:59
 A customer has experienced an ECC memory event on a critical server while away from
 the office. Which HPE cloud-based portal provides the ability to easily track service for
 future events for the host and the support case raised?


 A. HPE Active Health System
 B. HPE Insight Diagnostic
 C. HPE Insight Online
 D. HPE Agentless Management Service


 Answer: C


 QUESTION:60
 What is a function of a c7000 Onboard Administrator module?


 A. Deploy an operating system with Intelligent provisioning.
 B. Provides thermal and power status for devices in the enclosure.
 C. Runs a OneView virtual machine.
 D. Perform Secure Erase of blade disk drives in the enclosure.


 Answer: B



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 QUESTION:40
 Which three components are included in the Cisco IOS XR infrastructure? (Choose
 three.)

 A. modular line cards
 B. shelf controllers
 C. route processors
 D. service processors
 E. distributed service cards



 Answer: B, C, D

 Explanation:
 1.4. SP high end product 1.4.01. IOS-XR structure Distributed Infrastructure
 The kernel is replicated across the router infrastructure. The services and client
 applications can be distributed across the router infrastructure. The infrastructure includes
 route processors (RPs), distributed route processors (DRPs), service processors (SPs),
 shelf controllers (SCs), modular service cards (MSCs), and line cards (LCs).



 QUESTION:41
 Which statement about multicast VPN is true?



 A. The MDT group address should be the same for both address families in the same
 VRF.
 B. The MDT group address should be the same for both address families in the different
 VRFs.
 C. Configuration of the MDT source on a pre-VRF basis is supported only on IPv6.
 D. The MDT group address should be different for both address families in the same
 VRF.


 Answer: A

 Explanation:
 Restrictions for Multicast VPN for Multicast Routing
 � Configuration of the MDT source on a per-VRF basis is only supported on IPv4. � The
 MDT group address should be the same for both the address families in the same VRF.
 Default-MDTs must have the same group address for all VRFs
 that comprise a MVPN.
 Data-MDTs may have the same group address if PIM-SSM is used. If PIM-SM is used,
 they must have a different group address, as providing the same one could result in the
 PE router receiving unwanted traffic. This is a PIM-SM protocol issue, not an
 implementation issue.


 QUESTION:42
 Which three statements about the route target (RT) are true? (Choose three.)


 A. The RT is a BGP extended community.
 B. The RT is an 8-byte field that is prefixed to an IPv4 address to make it a unique
 VPNv4 address.
 C. When a VPN route that is learned from a CE router is injected into BGP, one or more
 RTs are associated with it
 D. The distribution of VPN routing information is controlled through the use of VPN RTs
 E. When a VPN route that is learned from a CE router is injected into BGP, there is
 always one RT that is associated with it.


 Answer: A, C, D


 QUESTION:43
 What is the port number of the IPsec Encapsulating Security Payload packet?


 A. UDP port 50
 B. IP protocol 51
 C. TCP port 51
 D. TCP port 50
 E. IP protocol 50
 F. UDP port51


 Answer: E

 Explanation:
 6.2. Managed Security services traversing the core
 AH operates directly on top of IP, using IP protocol number 51. ESP operates directly on
 top of IP, using IP protocol number 50.


 QUESTION:44
 Which statement about VPLS is true?


 A. All CE devices emulate a bridge
 B. All provider devices emulate a bridge
 C. Hierarchical VPLS reduces signaling overhead
 D. Each PE device emulates a bridge
 E. Each CE device emulates a bridge


 Answer: C

 Explanation:
 A hierarchical model can be used to improve the scalability characteristics of VPLS.
 Hierarchical VPLS (HVPLS) reduces signaling overhead and packet replication
 requirements for the provider edge.


 QUESTION:45
 Which three statements about the secure domain router are true? (Choose three.)


 A. The logical router can span across chassis.
 B. The fabric and system controller module are shared by all logical routers.
 C. Each logical router has a distinct fabric and system controller module
 D. The logical router can share a route processor
 E. The logical router cannot share a route processor.


 Answer: A, B, E

 Explanation:
 1.4. SP high end product
 1.4.04. Secure domain router (SDR)

 QUESTION:46
 In Ethernet Aggregation application which option is needed when the U-PE connects to
 an N-PE and broadband remote access servers?


 A. Ethernet Multipoint Service (EMS)
 B. VPLS
 C. E1
 D. Wire Service


 Answer: A



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Section 4: Sec Four (49 to 54)
Details: Case Study: 3 Overview
Contoso, Ltd. Is a national scientific research company that has sales, marketing. And

research departments. Contoso has a main office in Dallas and more than 20 satellite
offices across the United States. Some employees work off-site at customer locations.
Contoso is expected to double in size during the next two years.
Existing Environment
The Microsoft SQL server environment contains the server configured as shown in the
following table.




Contoso currently uses SQL Server 2008 R2 on all of the database servers, SQL01
currently requires six cores and 50 GB memory.
Once a day, database snapshots are taken on the mirror to provide ad hoc reporting and
to load data warehouse.
One report is used for ad hoc reporting by using the mirrored copy of the OLTP
database. Research Gen IT is a Windows application that users currently access by using
Remote Desktop. Business Goals
Contoso identifies the following business goals:

� Minimize the costs associated with purchasing hardware and software.
� Prevent any negative impact on performance when moving database platforms to the

cloud.
� Audit user access to and query execution on all of the database in the research
department. Planned Changes

� Upgrade SQL03 fromSQL Server 2008 R2 to SQL Server 2014 on Windows Server
2012 R2.

� IVIigrate SQL01 and SQL02 to Infrastructure as a Service (IAAS) on SQL Server

2014.

� Leverage cloud services fora disaster recovery location and for high availability.
� Replace Research Gen II with a cloud-based application named One Research. The

database for this application will be migrated to a cloud service.

Departmental R equirements

Senior research project leaders must be able to upload databases to the cloud. Initially,

the databases will be less than 3 GB. Some databases may grow to 50 GB. The databases

must be recoverable to any point during the past two weeks.
The research project leaders must monitor the performance of their databases. They must


view statistics, such as query performance and overall database performance.



The marketing department plans to use cloud services to host web applications for
marketing campaigns. The database for the web applications have the requirements
shown in the following table.



Technical Requirements
� Contoso identifies the following technical requirements:
� OLTP will be offloaded to Nlicrosoft Azure virtual machines.
� The data for One Report must not be more than 15 minutes old.
� All of the databases for the OLTP system must be implemented on solid state drives
(SSDs)
� A solution for the OLTP system must be created to provide disaster recovery and
repoting between SQL01 and SQL02.
� All databases, except for the research and marketing databases, must be recoverable to
any point during the last 30 days.

� A solution for the data warehouse system must be created to provide disaster recovery
between SQL03 and an Azure virtual machine named SQL04.



QUESTION: 49

You are designing the data warehouse.

You need to recommended a solution that meets the business goals and the technical

requirements. What should you recommend?


A. Create an AIwaysOn availability group between SQL03 and SQL04.
B. Host the data warehouse on an Azure Virtual machine.
C. Create an Azure HD|nsight cluster.
D. Create an Azure DocumentDB database.


Answer: B


QUESTION: 50
You are designing the data warehouse. You need to recommend a solution that meets the
business goals and the technical requirements. What should you recommend?


A. Create an AIwaysOn availability group between SQL03 and SQL04.
B. Host the data warehouse on an Azure virtual machine.
C. Create an Azure HD|nsight cluster.
D. Create an Azure Document DB database.


Answer: C


QUESTION: 51
You are evaluating the use of active geo-replication for one of the research department
databases. You need to identify which service tier to use for the database. The solution
must meet the department requirements and the business requirements.
What should you identify?

A. Premium P1
B. Premium P4
C. Standard S0 D.BaQc


Answer: D


QUESTION: 52
You need to ensure that the performance statistics for the research department are
collected. What should you enable?


A. Query Performance Insight
B. Scale and Configuration
C. Dynamic Data Masking
D. Index advisor


Answer: C



QUESTION: 53

You need to tell the research project leaders how to migrate their databases.
Which task should you instruct the leaders to use from SQL Server Management Studio?





A. Extract Data-tier Application
B. Deploy Database to a Microsoft Azure VM
C. Deploy Databaseto a Microsoft Azure SQL Database
D. Copy Database


Answer: B



QUESTION: 54

You need to recommend an auditing solution that meets the business goals.
Which three events should you include in the recommendation? Each correct answer

presents part of the solution.


A. Transaction Management
B. Stored Procedure
C. Plain SQL
D. Login
E. Failed Connections


Answer: D

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 C. Contract administration
 D. Contract formation



 Answer: C


 QUESTION: 135
 Which of the following is the key policy of contract administration?

 A. compliance with contract terms and conditions
 B. effective control of contract changes
 C. effective resolution of claims and disputes
 D. All of the above



 Answer: D


 QUESTION: 136
 Generally, observing and collecting information cover which three categories of concern?


 A. compliance, cost control and schedule control
 B. cost control and schedule control, risk control
 C. compliance, cost control and performance
 D. compliance, change control and risk control



 Answer: A


 QUESTION: 137
 A progress report from many observers, and technical reviews and audits is called:

 A. Direct observation
 B. Indirect observation
 C. Contractual audit
 D. Change observation



 Answer: B

 QUESTION: 138
 Changes are an inevitable part of contracting, because no one can predict the future with
 perfect accuracy.

 A. True
 B. False



 QUESTION: 139
 Contract closure by mutual agreement or breach of contract is called contract closeout.


 A True
 B. False



 Answer: B


 QUESTION: 140
 What refers to verifying that all administrative matters are concluded on a contract that is
 otherwise physically complete?


 A. Contract termination
 B. Contract certificate
 C. Contract closeout
 D. Contract execution



 Answer: C


 QUESTION: 141
 Which of the following is the type of termination?


 A. termination for cause
 B. termination by mutual agreement
 C. no-cost settlement
 D. All of the above



 Answer: D


 QUESTION: 142
 Used without normal termination procedures, no-cost settlement can be considered when:


 A. the seller has indicated it will accept it
 B. no buyer property was furnished under the contract
 C. the product or service can be readily obtained elsewhere
 D. All of the above



 Answer: D





 QUESTION: 143
 Supply chain management advocates told buyers that they needed to:

 A. use fewer suppliers vs. many suppliers
 B. negotiate long-term contract vs. short-term contracts
 C. conduct more detailed progress or milestone tracking of suppliers
 D. All of the above



 Answer: D


 QUESTION: 144
 To achieve high performance results year after year, companies must take what action to
 form successful long-term partnerships?


 A. unleashing corporate buying and selling power
 B. changing buying and selling processes and tools
 C. developing and integrated supply chain
 D. All of the above



 Answer: D



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