Sunday 28 July 2019

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 A. Open Cases
 B. Closed Cases
 C. Open Activities
 D. Closed Activities


 Answer: D


 QUESTION: 498
 CORRECT TEXT
 You can use inline editing to maintain all detail pages in the application except for....?


 Answer: Documents and Forecasts


 QUESTION: 499
 Through the Web-to-Case function, how is that case associated with a contact?


 A. Contact name
 B. Contact email
 C. Account name
 D. None of the above


 Answer: B


 QUESTION: 500
 CORRECT TEXT
 Data validation rules impact all supported objects except for...


 Answer: Forecasts and Territories


 QUESTION: 501
 CORRECT TEXT
 List the objects that may have Sharing Rules





 Answer:
 � Lead
 � Account
 � Contact
 � Opportunity
 � Case
 � Campaign
 � Custom Objects


 QUESTION: 502

 Does access to folders respect the role hierarchy?


 A. Yes
 B. No


 Answer: B


 QUESTION: 503

 When creating users, does the alias need to be unique?


 A. Yes
 B. No


 Answer: B


 QUESTION: 504
 When using Territory Management, can an opportunity be associated with multiple
 territories?


 A. Yes
 B. No


 Answer: B



 Explanation:
 Accounts and Users can be associated with multiple opportunities but Opportunitiescan
 only be in one territory. Accounts and Users can be associated with multiple
 opportunities but Opportunities can only be in one territory.


 QUESTION: 505
 Do users have to display the jump page every time they create a new record?


 A. Yes
 B. No


 Answer: B


 QUESTION: 506

 If I'm looking at a detail page, how do I know what record type it is?


 A. Yes
 B. No


 Answer: B


 QUESTION: 507
 CORRECT TEXT
 If I'm looking at a detail page, how do I know what record type it is?


 Answer: For tabs that have multiple record types defined, you can look at the Record
 Type field on the page. However, this field must be added to the page layout.


 QUESTION: 508
 CORRECT TEXT
 What happens if you add a picklist value to a field when there are multiple record types?


 Answer: You will be promted to select the record type that should include the new value.



 QUESTION: 509
 CORRECT TEXT
 Which tabs are restricted from multiple record types?


 Answer: Home, Forecasts, Documents, Reports, Consoles and Web tabs


 QUESTION: 510
 CORRECT TEXT
 Before creating record types for Leads, Opportunities, Cases or Solutions, you need to
 create what?


 Answer: Business processes


 QUESTION: 511
 CORRECT TEXT
 What objects in the Org Wide Defaults allow you to do a public read/write/transfer?


 Answer: Leads and cases


 QUESTION: 512
 CORRECT TEXT
 List the differences between the Jumpstart Wizard and the Standard Approval Process
 Wizard:


 Answer: Jump Start Wizard only allows for a single approver.


 QUESTION: 513
 CORRECT TEXT
 Describe the components of the Console tab:


 Answer: Frames, list view, detail view, mini view, sidebar, related objects, mini page
 layouts, console layout




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Saturday 27 July 2019

Here 312-50 Question and Answers, Today Download ECCouncil Brain Dumps

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B. Session Hijacking
C. Cross Site Scripting*
D. Web server hacking


Answer: C


QUESTION: 341
You want to carry out session hijacking on a remote server. The server and the client are
communicating via TCP after a successful TCP three way handshake. The server has just
received packet #155 from the client. The client has a receive window of 230 and the server has
a receive window of 280. Within what range of sequence numbers should a packet, sent by the
client fall in order to be accepted by the server?


A. 200-280
B. 156-436* C. 155-435
D. 155-231
E. 155-530


Answer: B


QUESTION: 342
Jack is testing the perimeter security of DMC corp. He has identified a system in the
demilitarized zone. Using Hping and nmap, he has verified that telnet service is running on the
machine. To minimize his footprint, he spoofs his IP while attempting to telnet into the network.
However, he is still unable to telnet into the network. What do you think is the reason?


A. The demilitarized zone is secured by a firewall
B. Jack cannot successfully use TCP while spoofing his IP*
C. Jack needs to use a tool such as nmap to telnet inside
D. The target system does not reply to telnet even when the service is running


Answer: B


QUESTION: 343

An attacker tries to connect their wireless client, typically a laptop or PDA, to a basestation
without authorization. What would you call this attack?


A. Plug-in Unauthorized Clients Attack*
B. Plug-in Unauthorized Renegade Base Station Attack
C. Interception Attack
D. Monitoring Attack


Answer: A


QUESTION: 344
When SSL and SSH connections get hijacked, the only alert to the end-user is a warning that the
credentials of the host and certificate have changed and ask if you trust the new ones. Your
organization wants to provide some kind of interim protection its network users from such an
attack. Choose the best option.


A. Monitor all broadcasts from the base station and renegade base station
B. Enable SSH's StrictHostKeyChecking option, and distribute server key signatures to mobile
clients*


Answer: B


QUESTION: 345
WEP can be typically configured in 3 possible modes. They are:


A. 64 bit encryption, 128 bit encryption, 254 bit encryption
B. 30 bit encryption, 48 bit encryption, 64 bit encryption
C. No encryption, 40 bit encryption, 128 bit encryption*
D. No encryption, 48 bit encryption, 64 bit encryption


Answer: C


QUESTION: 346


An attacker with the proper equipment and tools can easily flood the 2.4 GHz frequency, so that
the signal to noise drops so low, that the wireless network ceases to function. What would you
call this attack?


A. Hamming
B. Flooding
C. Jamming*
D. Scooping


Answer: C


QUESTION: 347
Jack supports the parasitic grid movement actively. The grid is an underground movement to
deploy free wireless access zones in metropolitan areas. Jack is part of the group of volunteers
deploying, at their own expense, a wireless access point on the outside of their home, or at worst
at a window, with the access point connected to the volunteer's PC. What tool can an attacker use
to hide his access point among legitimate access points and steal credentials?


A. Dsniff
B. AirSnort
C. Netstumbler
D. Fake AP*


Answer: D


QUESTION: 348
In a switched network, the traffic flows as shown below:
Step 1: Node A transmits a frame to Node C.

Step 2: The switch will examine this frame and determine what the intended host is. It will then
set up a connection between Node A and Node C so that they have a 'private' connection.
Step 3: Node C will receive the frame and will examine the address. After determining that it is
the intended host, it will process the frame further

Which of the following represents attacks that can help an attacker sniff on a switched network?


A. ARP Spoofing, Switch Hijacking, MAC corrupting
B. ARP Spoofing, MAC Flooding, MAC duplicating*
C. Switch Flooding, Switch Tampering, Switch Hijacking


D. MAC Spoofing, Ethernet Flooding, MAC harvesting


Answer: B


QUESTION: 349
How would you describe a simple yet very effective mechanism for sending and receiving
unauthorized information or data between machines without alerting any firewalls and IDS's on a
network?


A. Crafted Channel
B. Covert Channel*
C. Deceptive Channel
D. Bounce Channel


Answer: B


QUESTION: 350
Derek transmits an ARP to a non-broadcast address. He gets a response from a machine on the
network of its IP address. What must Derek infer?


A. The machine has been trojaned by an attacker
B. The machine is running a sniffer in promiscuous mode*
C. The machine is configured with a local address loop
D. His system has its ARP cached and is looping back into the network


Answer: B


QUESTION: 351
During the scanning portion of his penetration test, Ed discovered a handful of Oracle servers.
Later, Ed found that those Oracle servers were being used by the webservers to retrieve
information. Ed decided that he should try some SQL injection attacks in order to read
information out of the Oracle servers. He opens the web page in his browser and begins injecting
commands. After hours of attempts, Ed is having no luck getting even a small amount of
information out of the databases. What is the probable cause of this? (Select the Best Answer)


A. You cannot do SQL injection against Oracle database
B. You must directly connect to the database instead of using the web server
C. You cannot use a web browser to perform SQL injection
D. Ed is not using SQL Plus to inject commands


Answer: A


QUESTION: 352
As inferred from the following entry which of the following statements describes the attacker's
effort? cmd/c C: \ProgramFiles\CommonFiles\system\...\pdump.exe>>C:\mine.txt


A. Enumerate users and passwords with Password Dump
B. Copy pdump.exe and rename it to mine.txt
C. Execute pdump.exe and save into mine.txt*
D. Copy mine.txt into the directory where pdump.exe resides


Answer: C


QUESTION: 353
John has a proxy server on his network which caches and filters web access. He has shut down
all unnecessary ports and services. Additionally, he has installed a firewall (Cisco PIX) that will
not allow users to connect to any outbound ports. Jack, a network user has successfully
connected to a remote server on port 80 using netcat. He could in turn drop a shell from the
remote machine. John wants to harden his network such that a remote user does not do the same
to his network. Choose the option that can be easily and more effectively implemented.


A. Do not use a proxy as application layer does not provide adequate protection
B. Limit HTTP CONNECT on the network*
C. Sniff the traffic and look for lengthy connection periods
D. Filter port 80


Answer: B


QUESTION: 354
Reflective DDoS attacks do not send traffic directly at the targeted host. Instead, they usually
spoof the originating IP addresses and send therequests at the reflectors. These reflectors


(usually routers or high- powered servers witha large amount of network resources at their
disposal) then reply to the spoofed targeted traffic by sending loads and loads of data to the final
target. How would you detect these reflectors on your network?


A. Run Vulnerability scanner on your network to detect these reflectors
B. Run floodnet tool to detect these reflectors
C. Look for the banner text by running Zobbie Zappers tools
D. Scan the network using Nmap for the services used by these reflectors


Answer: D


QUESTION: 355

You are programming a buffer overflow exploit and you want to create a NOP sled of 200 bytes
in the program exploit.c
char shellcode[] =
"\x31\xc0\xb0\x46\x31\xdb\x31\xc9\xcd\x80\xeb\x16\x5b\x31\xc0"
"\x88\x43\x07\x89\x5b\x08\x89\x43\x0c \xb0
\x0b\x8d\x4b\x08\x8d" "\x53\x0c\xcd\x80\xe8\xe5\xff\xff\xff\x2f\x62\x69\x6e\x2f\x73" "\x68";

What is the hexadecimal value of NOP instruction?


A. 0x60
B. 0x70
C. 0x80
D. 0x90


Answer: D



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Saturday 6 July 2019

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QUESTION 306
An administrator needs to verify that vMotion operations can be performed in a vSphere data center.
What round trip time (RTT) latency is the maximum value that will allow vMotion operations to succeed?

A. 50ms RTT
B. 100ms RTT
C. 150ms RTT
D. 200ms RTT


Answer: B

QUESTION 307
Which two SMTP Notification Event Details are specific to alarms triggered by events? (Choose two.)

A. User Name
B. Summary
C. Old Status
D. Target


Answer: A,B


QUESTION 308
Which two statements about virtual switches in vSphere 6.x virtual networking are true? (Choose two.)


A. Monitors metadata about communications that occur in a network.
B. Creates isolated networks for testing and development.
C. Attaches virtual machines to the physical network.
D. Performs load balancing.

Answer: C,D


QUESTION 309
An administrator has configured an alarm to be notified when a virtual machine meets either of these conditions:
High virtual CPU
High active memory consumption.
The alarm is only triggering when both of the conditions are met.
What can be done to correct the alarm behavior?


A. Edit the alarm and select Trigger if ANY of the following conditions are satisfied.
B. Edit the alarm and select Trigger if ALL of the following conditions are satisfied.
C. Create two separate alarms, one for CPU and one for memory and link them together with ESXCLI.
D. Delete the existing alarm and create a new event based alarm.

Answer: A




QUESTION 310
A company has decided to implement Virtual SAN within their vSphere 6.x environment.
The Virtual SAN cluster will be composed of three ESXi 6.x hosts that are on the Virtual SAN Ready Node list.
Each ESXi host includes:
The company will pilot a Virtual SAN cluster utilizing VMware best practices while
maximizing storage capacity. The Virtual SAN cluster will use Manual Mode.
Which two Disk Group configurations would meet the stated configuration requirements? (Choose two.)

A. 4 disk groups with 1 SSD and 5 MDs each
B. 2 disk groups with 1 SSD and 7 MDs each
C. 2 disk groups with 2 SSDs and 7 MDs each
D. 2 disk groups with 1 SSD and 10 MDs each

Answer: A,B

QUESTION 311
What two files are created when the Take snapshot operation is executed? (Choose two.)

A. .delta.vmdk
B. .nvram
C. .vmsn
D. .lck

Answer: A,C

Explanation: References:

QUESTION 312
VMware vRealize Log Insight can be configured to send notification events to which endpoint?

A. vRealize Infrastructure Navigator
B. vRealize Configuration Manager
C. vRealize Operations Manager
D. vCenter Server

Answer: C

Explanation: References:

QUESTION 313
What are three goals of resource management within a cluster? (Choose three.)

A. To prevent virtual machines from monopolizing resources and to guarantee predictable service rates.
B. To exploit undercommitted resources and overcommit with graceful degradation.
C. To provide solutions to potential problems that you might encounter when using vCenter Server.
D. To control the relative importance of virtual machines and provide flexible dynamic partitioning.
E. To provide additional network administration capabilities.


Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 314
When modifying a vApp, which two vSphere entities can be added? (Choose two.)

A. A resource pool
B. A network pool
C. A vApp
D. A folder

Answer: A,C

QUESTION 315
An administrator has been tasked with enabling High Availability (HA) on a cluster in a vSphere 6.x environment with
default settings. The cluster configures properly and there are no errors.
The next day when powering on a virtual machine, an error is presented:
Not Enough Failover Resources
Which three scenarios are likely causes of this error message? (Choose three.)

A. The default VM Monitoring Sensitivity is set too high.
B. There are not enough datastore heartbeat datastores configured by default.
C. The default slot size in the cluster is set too high.
D. There are virtual machines with large CPU reservations.
E. A host is in maintenance mode for a replacement of a failed Hard Drive.

Answer: C,D,E

QUESTION 316
How many Link Aggregation Groups (LAGs) can be configured on a vSphere 6.x Distributed Switch?

A. 64
B. 96
C. 128
D. 256

Answer: A

QUESTION 317
Which three connection types are available when configuring a vSwitch in the vSphere Web Client? (Choose three.)

A. VMkernel Network Adapter
B. Physical Network Adapter
C. Virtual Machine Port Group for a Standard Switch
D. vMotion Network Adapter
E. vSAN Network Adapter

Answer: A,B,C




QUESTION 318
Refer to the Exhibit. An administrator has configured a host profile so that ESXi 6.x hosts will point to the corporate
NTP server for time synchronization. The NTP server is located at 10.0.30.213, but time has not been synchronized
properly across the ESXi hosts.


The administrator reviews Host Profile settings as shown in the Exhibit.
Which two steps are required to resolve the issue? (Choose two.)


A. Correct the NTP server IP address.
B. Check the host for host profile compliance.
C. Remediate the host based on the updated host profile.
D. Change the NTP server to the FQDN as IP Addresses are not supported.

Answer: A,C



QUESTION 319
An organization has a number of virtual machines that would benefit from Fault Tolerance.
These include:
A single vCPU Apache Server
A dual vCPU vCenter Server
A quad vCPU SQL Server
An eight vCPU Hadoop Server
Which two virtual machines can be configured to use VMware Fault Tolerance? (Choose two.)








A. Apache Server
B. vCenter Server
C. SQL Server
D. Hadoop Server

Answer: A,C



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Thursday 4 July 2019

Microsoft Bring Ultimate Exams & Certification Solutions of 98-349

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 98-349






Explanation:
Microsoft Management Console (MMC) is anapplication that acts as the host tool for
administering computers,networks,andothersystemcomponents.MMCdoesnot
performadministrative services. It acts as the host for one or more modules called snap-ins.
A combination of one or more snap-ins can be saved in a file called a Microsoft Common
Console Document or an MMC console.


QUESTION: 71
You work as a Database Administrator for Softech Inc. You have to configure the hard disks
of newly purchased computer systems in your organization. Which of the following options
will you use to accomplish the task?


A. Reliability and Performance Monitor
B. Print Management
C. Event Viewer
D. Computer Management


Answer: D


Explanation:
Computer Management manages local or remote computers by using a single, consolidated
desktop tool. Computer Management performs many tasks, such as monitoring system

events, configuring hard disks, and managing system performance. Answer: C is incorrect.
Event Viewer views information about significant events, such as programs starting or
stopping, or security errors, that are recordedin event logs. Answer: B is incorrect. Print
Management manages printers and printservers on a networkand performs other
administrative tasks. Answer: A is incorrect. Reliability and Performance Monitor views
advanced system information about the central processing unit (CPU), memory, hard disk,
and network performance.


QUESTION: 72

Which of the following are the advantages of the Print to file option?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.


A. A document can be sent to a commercial printer.
B. A document can be printed later.
C. A document can be sent to any printer.
D. A document can be sent to someone who has the same printer.


Answer: B, A, D
57



 98-349





Explanation:
The advantages of the Print to file option are as follows:
1.If a user does not have a printer handy, he can archive a document and print it later.
2.The user can send a document or photo to a commercial printer.
3.The user can send a document to someone who has the same printer but does not have the
program to create the document.


QUESTION: 73
Which of the following are tiles that appear in Windows MobilityCenter? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.


A. Battery Status
B. Volume
C. Optimization
D. Display brightness


Answer: D, B, A

Explanation:
Following are the various tiles that appear in Windows Mobility Center:
1.Display brightness: A user should click the iconfor openingthe Power Options control
panel, where he may make brightness changes that are always in effect.
2.Volume: It changes the speakers' volume or mute them entirely. Click the icon to open the
Sound control panel.
3.Battery Status: It works as the battery's fuel gauge. The drop-down menu allows a user to
choose a canned setting like "High performance" or "Power saver".
4.Wireless Network: It turns the Wi-Fi circuitry on or off and shows how many bars of signal
a user has.
5.Screen Orientation: It allows a user to turn the screen image 90 degrees. Click the icon to
open the Display Settings control panel for additional screen settings.
6.External Display: It also reveals whether or not Windows "sees" the second screen. Click
the icon to open the Display control panel, where the resolution and other settings of the
second monitor can be configured.
7.Sync Center: It is the communications hub for offline files. This tile shows the status of a
sync that is already under way. Click the icon (or "Sync settings") to open the Sync Center
program.
8.Presentation Settings: It is available onlyin the Professional, Enterprise, and Ultimate
editions of Windows 7. It makes sure that the laptop will not do anything embarrassing while
the user is in the middle of his presentation.


QUESTION: 74
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.
____________helps a user run programs designed for Windows XP on computers running
Windows 7 Professional, Windows 7 Enterprise, or Windows 7 Ultimate. The user can run
58
applications for Windows XP directly from the Windows 7 desktop.



 98-349






Answer: Windows XP Mode


Explanation:
Windows XP Mode helps a user runprograms designed for Windows XP on computers
running Windows7Professional,Windows7Enterprise,orWindows7Ultimate.The
usercanrun applications for Windows XP directly from the Windows 7 desktop.


QUESTION: 75
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
The____________tab of the service propertieswindow allows a user to view the
dependencies related to a given service.


Answer: Dependencies

Explanation:
The Dependencies tab of the service properties window allows a user to view the
dependencies related to a given service. Services will not start if their dependencies are not
started. Sometimes, the failure of a service to start is not related directly to that service. It is
because one of that service's dependencies did not start.


QUESTION: 76
David works as a Server Administrator for www.company.com Inc. The company uses the
Windows 7 operating system. David wants to increase the security of a message or file to
ensure that it is fully protected. Which of the following will David use to accomplish the
task?


A. FAT
B. NTFS
C. Encryption
D. FAT64


Answer: C


Explanation:
Encryption is a method to increase the security of a message or file by scrambling the
contents so thatthe file or message can be read only by someone who has the right
encryption keyto unscramble it. A user can use encryption when he wants a strong level of
protection for his information. Answer: B is incorrect. NTFS is a file system that is used in
Windows 7. It is capable of recovering from some disk-related errors automatically. It has
improved support for larger hard disks. In NTFS, a user can use permissions and encryption
59
to restrict access to specific files to approved users. Answer: Aisincorrect.FATisa file



 98-349





system supported by Windows NT. TheFAT file system is characterized by the file
allocation table (FAT). This is a table that resides at the very "top" of the volume. To protect
thevolume, two copies of FAT are keptin case one becomes damaged.In addition, the
FAT tables and the root directory must be stored in a fixed location so that the system's boot
files can be correctly located. Answer: D is incorrect. Extended File Allocation Table
(exFAT), also known as FAT64, is a proprietary file system of Microsoft. The exFAT file
system is suited especially for flash drives to be used in embedded devices for Microsoft's
newer operating systems, such as Windows Vista Service Pack 1, Windows 7, Windows
Server 2008, etc. The exFAT file system not only handles large files but also enables
seamless interoperability between desktop PCs and devices, such as portable media devices,
so that files can easily be copied between desktop and device. It is better adapted to the
growing needs of mobile personal storage. According to Microsoft, the exFAT file system
has the following advantages:
Enables the file system to handle growing capacities in media, increasing capacity to 32 GB
and larger. Handles more than 1000 files in a single directory. Speeds up storage allocation
processes. Removes the previous file size limit of 4 GB. Supports interoperability with future
desktop OSs.Provides an extensible format, including OEM-definable parameters to
customize the file system for specific device characteristics. The exFAT file system can be
used where the NTFS file system is not a feasible solution (due to data structure overhead),
or where the file size or directory restrictions of previous versions of the FAT file system are
unacceptable.


QUESTION: 77
You work as a network administrator forwww.company.com Inc. The computers on the
network run Windows 7. The organization has managed networks in distributed locations
that are running Windows Server. The organization has 200-500 client computers and at least
one location with more than 25 users. Which strategy will you deploy for your organization?


A. High-Touch with Standard Image
B. Lite-Touch, High-Volume Deployment
C. High-Touch with Retail Media
D. Zero-Touch, High-Volume Deployment


Answer: B

Explanation:
TheLite-Touch,High-VolumeDeploymentstrategyisusedinmedium-sized

organizations.The organization that uses this strategy has information technology (IT) staff
to help with technology adoption. Organizations that usethis strategy have200-500client
computers and atleast one location with more than 25 users. They usually have managed
networks in distributed locations that are running Windows Server.


QUESTION: 78
Choose and reorder the correct steps to resize a gadget.
60



 98-349



Answer:




Explanation:
Take the following steps to resize a gadget:
1.Open the home screen.
2.In the home screen, right-click the gadget that you want to resize.
3.Click the Size option, and then click the size that you want the gadget to be.






QUESTION: 79
Choose and reorder the correct steps to uninstall an application.



Answer:



Explanation:
Take the following steps to uninstall an application:
1.Click the start button. Click Control Panel.
2.In Control Panel, click Programs, and then click Programs and Features.
3.Select a program, and then click Uninstall.
4.Some programs include the option to change or repair the program in addition to
uninstalling it. To change a program, click Change or
Repair.


QUESTION: 80
Which of the following can be done for the devices that are not working after the device

drivers are updated?


A. Use Device Manager and choose Roll Back Driver to return to the previous version.
B. Keep old computers so that they can use old devices.
C. Use the device drive and choose Roll Back Driver to return to the previous version.
D. Do not use the device.


Answer: A

Explanation:
As the devices worked prior to the driver update, use Device Manager and choose Roll Back
Driver to return to the previous version. Sometimes, updating drivers can cause problems.

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Question: 80
You need to plan a solution to allow masking of a calling number.
How can a calling number of a Skype for Business user be changed to match the main number of the company?
A. Create a trunk translation rule that masks the calling number.
B. Use the voice gateway to mask the calling number.
C. Create a new normalization rule and add it to the pool dial plan.
D. Use the telecommunications provider to mask the calling number.
E. Use the Skype for Business control panel to mask the calling number.

Answer: A

Question: 81
DRAG DROP
You need replace the existing automatic call distribution (ACD) helpdesk with Skype for Business Server 2015 solution.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence to recreate the ACD in Skype for Business Server 2015? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:



Answer:



References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/skypeforbusiness/plan-your-deployment/enterprise-voice-solution/response-group
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/skypeforbusiness/deploy/deploy-enterprise-voice/deployment-process-for-response-group
Question: 82

DRAG DROP
You need to implement voice resiliency for international calls.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct
order.
Select and Place:






Answer:



Question: 83
DRAG DROP
You need to replace the existing call group pickup solution in Denmark with a Skype for Business solution. You need to prepare the Skype for Business Server 2015
environment to provide call group pickup functionality.
Which three Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate Skype for Business Management Shell cmdlets
from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:





Answer:




Explanation:
�You need to prepare the Skype for Business Server 2015 environment to provide call group pickup functionality.�
We�re just preparing the environment. We�re not creating the call park yet. After running the three cmdlets above, you can then run the New-CsCallParkOrbit cmdlet.
Question: 84
HOTSPOT
You need to allocate the minimum bandwidth required for the global town hall meeting that will be held in the 3rd quarter of the financial year.
For each location, how much bandwidth in kilobits per second (Kbps) should you allocate? To answer, select the appropriate bandwidth value from each list in the answer
area.
Hot Area:





Answer:



Question: 85
You need to ensure that the new finance department users can sign in to the Aries phone without tethering the phone to their computer.
Which two actions should you perform?
NOTE: Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Assign a PIN for the users by running the Set-CsClientPin Skype for Business Management Shell command. Inform users about the new PIN.
B. Tell users to log on to the device with their Active Directory Domain Services (A,D DS) credentials and then set a Device Lock PIN.
C. Tell users to sign in to the phones with their Active Directory Domain Services (A,D DS) credentials.
D. Tell users to change their PIN by using the dial-in conferencing webpage.

Answer: A,D
Question: 86

You need to configure the trunks defined in the Skype for Business topology based on the requirements.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Disable REFER support.
B. Enable media bypass.
C. Set Encryption Support Level to required.
D. Enable centralized media processing.


Answer: A,B
Question: 87
You are planning the Peer-to-Peer (P2P) audio bandwidth requirements for the Berlin wide area network (WAN) connection.
You need to calculate the bandwidth usage network impact of P2P audio calls between Berlin and Moscow.
What is the minimum bandwidth in megabits per second (Mbps) required for P2P calls between Berlin and Moscow?
A. 8.7 Mbps
B. 7.8 Mbps
C. 9.1 Mbps
D. 6.1 Mbps

Answer: A

Explanation:
Silk Wideband is used for P2P audio. 44.3 kbps x 196 maximum users = 8.7 Mbps.
Question: 88
Users in Copenhagen report frequent audio call issues.
You need to resolve the issues.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create a new region link between the MPLS region and the Berlin region.
B. Create and configure a new network region and assign only Copenhagen to this region.
C. Create an inter-site policy which includes Copenhagen and Moscow and specify the existing BandwidthPolicyProfile �LOW�.
D. Create an inter-site policy which includes Copenhagen and Berlin and apply the existing BandwidthPolicyProfile �LOW�.
E. Create and configure a new network region and assign Berlin and Copenhagen to this region.


Answer: C,D,E
Question: 89
DRAG DROP
You need to configure the Berlin public switched telephone network (PSTN) usages and voice routes.
In which order will the PSTN usage policies be applied? To answer, move all PSTN usage policies from the list of PSTN usage policies to the answer area and arrange them
in which they should be applied.
Select and Place:





Question: 90

HOTSPOT
You need to design a solution for the Mediation Server pools and trunks that are required to support London, Berlin, and Moscow users.
How many of each component should you deploy? To answer, select the appropriate number of Mediation Server pools and trunks from the lists in the answer area.
Hot Area:





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