Friday 31 May 2019

Pass Guaranteed with 2V0-602 VMWare Actual Answers

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QUESTION 306
An administrator needs to verify that vMotion operations can be performed in a vSphere data center.
What round trip time (RTT) latency is the maximum value that will allow vMotion operations to succeed?

A. 50ms RTT
B. 100ms RTT
C. 150ms RTT
D. 200ms RTT


Answer: B

QUESTION 307
Which two SMTP Notification Event Details are specific to alarms triggered by events? (Choose two.)

A. User Name
B. Summary
C. Old Status
D. Target


Answer: A,B


QUESTION 308
Which two statements about virtual switches in vSphere 6.x virtual networking are true? (Choose two.)


A. Monitors metadata about communications that occur in a network.
B. Creates isolated networks for testing and development.
C. Attaches virtual machines to the physical network.
D. Performs load balancing.

Answer: C,D


QUESTION 309
An administrator has configured an alarm to be notified when a virtual machine meets either of these conditions:
High virtual CPU
High active memory consumption.
The alarm is only triggering when both of the conditions are met.
What can be done to correct the alarm behavior?


A. Edit the alarm and select Trigger if ANY of the following conditions are satisfied.
B. Edit the alarm and select Trigger if ALL of the following conditions are satisfied.
C. Create two separate alarms, one for CPU and one for memory and link them together with ESXCLI.
D. Delete the existing alarm and create a new event based alarm.

Answer: A







QUESTION 310
A company has decided to implement Virtual SAN within their vSphere 6.x environment.
The Virtual SAN cluster will be composed of three ESXi 6.x hosts that are on the Virtual SAN Ready Node list.
Each ESXi host includes:
The company will pilot a Virtual SAN cluster utilizing VMware best practices while
maximizing storage capacity. The Virtual SAN cluster will use Manual Mode.
Which two Disk Group configurations would meet the stated configuration requirements? (Choose two.)

A. 4 disk groups with 1 SSD and 5 MDs each
B. 2 disk groups with 1 SSD and 7 MDs each
C. 2 disk groups with 2 SSDs and 7 MDs each
D. 2 disk groups with 1 SSD and 10 MDs each

Answer: A,B

QUESTION 311
What two files are created when the Take snapshot operation is executed? (Choose two.)

A. .delta.vmdk
B. .nvram
C. .vmsn
D. .lck

Answer: A,C

Explanation: References:

QUESTION 312
VMware vRealize Log Insight can be configured to send notification events to which endpoint?

A. vRealize Infrastructure Navigator
B. vRealize Configuration Manager
C. vRealize Operations Manager
D. vCenter Server

Answer: C

Explanation: References:

QUESTION 313
What are three goals of resource management within a cluster? (Choose three.)

A. To prevent virtual machines from monopolizing resources and to guarantee predictable service rates.
B. To exploit undercommitted resources and overcommit with graceful degradation.
C. To provide solutions to potential problems that you might encounter when using vCenter Server.
D. To control the relative importance of virtual machines and provide flexible dynamic partitioning.
E. To provide additional network administration capabilities.




Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 314
When modifying a vApp, which two vSphere entities can be added? (Choose two.)

A. A resource pool
B. A network pool
C. A vApp
D. A folder

Answer: A,C

QUESTION 315
An administrator has been tasked with enabling High Availability (HA) on a cluster in a vSphere 6.x environment with
default settings. The cluster configures properly and there are no errors.
The next day when powering on a virtual machine, an error is presented:
Not Enough Failover Resources
Which three scenarios are likely causes of this error message? (Choose three.)

A. The default VM Monitoring Sensitivity is set too high.
B. There are not enough datastore heartbeat datastores configured by default.
C. The default slot size in the cluster is set too high.
D. There are virtual machines with large CPU reservations.
E. A host is in maintenance mode for a replacement of a failed Hard Drive.

Answer: C,D,E

QUESTION 316
How many Link Aggregation Groups (LAGs) can be configured on a vSphere 6.x Distributed Switch?

A. 64
B. 96
C. 128
D. 256

Answer: A

QUESTION 317
Which three connection types are available when configuring a vSwitch in the vSphere Web Client? (Choose three.)

A. VMkernel Network Adapter
B. Physical Network Adapter
C. Virtual Machine Port Group for a Standard Switch
D. vMotion Network Adapter
E. vSAN Network Adapter

Answer: A,B,C



QUESTION 318
Refer to the Exhibit. An administrator has configured a host profile so that ESXi 6.x hosts will point to the corporate
NTP server for time synchronization. The NTP server is located at 10.0.30.213, but time has not been synchronized
properly across the ESXi hosts.






The administrator reviews Host Profile settings as shown in the Exhibit.
Which two steps are required to resolve the issue? (Choose two.)


A. Correct the NTP server IP address.
B. Check the host for host profile compliance.
C. Remediate the host based on the updated host profile.
D. Change the NTP server to the FQDN as IP Addresses are not supported.

Answer: A,C



QUESTION 319
An organization has a number of virtual machines that would benefit from Fault Tolerance.
These include:
A single vCPU Apache Server
A dual vCPU vCenter Server
A quad vCPU SQL Server
An eight vCPU Hadoop Server
Which two virtual machines can be configured to use VMware Fault Tolerance? (Choose two.)





A. Apache Server
B. vCenter Server
C. SQL Server
D. Hadoop Server

Answer: A,C








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QUESTION: 225
To identify those components of a telecommunications system that present the greatest
risk, an internal auditor should first




A. Review the open systems interconnect network model.
B. Identify the network operating costs.
C. Determine the business purpose of the network.
D. Map the network software and hardware products into their respective layers.



Answer: C



QUESTION: 226
An auditor plans toanalyze customer satisfaction,including (1)customer complaints
recordedbythe customer service departmentduring thelast threemonths; (2)
merchandise returnedin thelastthree months; and (3) responses toa surveyof
customerswho made purchases in thelastthree months.Which ofthefollowing
statements regarding this audit approach is correct?



A. Although useful, such an analysis does not address any risk factors.
B. The survey would notconsider customers who did notmake purchases in the last
three months.
C. Steps1 and 2 ofthe analysis are notnecessary or cost-effectiveif the customer
survey is comprehensive.
D. Analysis of three months' activity would not evaluate customer satisfaction.



Answer: B



QUESTION: 227
Wheninternalauditors provideconsulting services,the scope ofthe engagementis
primarily determined by



A. Internal auditing standards.
B. The audit engagement team.
C. The engagement client.
D. The internal audit activity's charter.



Answer: C



QUESTION: 228
An internal auditor is assigned to conduct an audit of security for a local area network
(LAN) in the finance department of the organization. Investment decisions, including



the use of hedging strategies andfinancial derivatives,use data and financial models
which run on the LAN. The LAN is also used to download data from the mainframe to
assist in decisions. Which of the following should be considered outside the scope of
this security audit engagement?



A. Investigation of the physical security over access to the components of the LAN.
B. The ability of the LAN application to identify data items at the field or record level
and implement user access security at that level.
C. Interviews with users to determine their assessment of thelevel of security in the
system and the vulnerability of the system to compromise.
D. The level of security of other LANs in the company which also utilize sensitive data.



Answer: D



QUESTION: 229
At the beginning of fieldwork in an audit of investments, an internal auditor noted that
theinterestratehad declined significantly sincethe engagementworkprogram was
created. The auditor should



A. Proceed with the existing program since this was the original scope of work that was
approved.
B. Modify the audit program and proceed with the engagement.
C. Consultwithmanagementtoverify theinterestrate change andproceed withthe
engagement.
D. Determine the effect of the interest rate change and whether the program should be
modified.



Answer: D


QUESTION: 230
Which of the following measurements could an auditor use in an audit of the efficiency
of a motor vehicle inspection facility?



A. The total number of cars approved.
B. The ratio of cars rejected to total cars inspected.
C. The number of cars inspected per inspection agent.
D. The average amount of fees collected per cashier.


Answer: C



QUESTION: 231
Abakery chainhas astatistical modelthatcan be used topredict daily sales at
individual stores based on a direct relationship to the cost of ingredients used and an



inverse relationship to rainydays.Whatconditions would an auditorlook foras an
indicator of employee theft of food from a specific store?



A. On a rainy day, total sales are greater than expected when compared to the cost of
ingredients used.
B. On a sunny day,total sales areless than expected when compared to the cost of
ingredients used.
C. Both total sales and cost of ingredients used are greater than expected.
D. Both total sales and cost of ingredients used are less than expected.




Answer: B



QUESTION: 232
Which of the following procedures would provide the best evidence of the effectiveness
of a credit-granting function?




A. Observe the process.
B. Review the trend in receivables write-offs.
C. Ask the credit manager about the effectiveness of the function.
D. Check for evidence of credit approval on a sample of customer orders.



Answer: B



QUESTION: 233
Anorganizationhas developed alarge database thattracks employees, employee
benefits, payroll deductions, job classifications, and other similar information. In order
to test whether data currently within the automated system are correct, an auditor should



A. Use test data and determine whether all the data entered are captured correctly in the
updated database.
B. Select a sample of data to be entered for a few days and trace the data to the updated
database to determine the correctness of the updates.
C. Use generalized audit software to provide a printout of all employees with invalid job
descriptions. Investigate the causes of the problems.
D. Use generalized audit software to select a sample of employees from the database.
Verify the data fields.



Answer: D



QUESTION: 234


Seniormanagementat afinancial institutionhas received allegations of fraudatits
derivatives trading desk and has asked the internal audit activity to investigate and issue
a reportconcerningthe allegations. The internalauditactivity hasnotyetdeveloped
sufficient proficiencyregardingderivativestradingto conduct athorough fraud
investigationin this area.Which of the followingcourses of actionshould the chief
audit executive (CAE) take to comply with the Standards?



A. Engage the former head of the institution's derivatives trading desk to perform the
investigation and submit a report with supporting documentation to the CAE.
B. Request thatsenior management allow a delay of thefraud investigation until the
internal audit activity's on-staff certified fraud examiner is able to obtain the appropriate
training regarding the analysis of derivatives trading.
C. Request thatseniormanagementexclude theinternal auditactivity fromthe
investigation completely and instead contract with an external certified fraud examiner
with derivatives experience to perform all aspects of the investigation and subsequent
reporting.
D. Contractwith anexternal certifiedfraudexaminerwith derivatives experienceto
performtheinvestigation andsubsequentreporting,withthe chief auditexecutive
approving the scope oftheinvestigation and evaluating the adequacy ofthe work
performed.



Answer: D



QUESTION: 235
AccordingtotheInternational ProfessionalPracticesFramework,internalauditors
should possess which of the following competencies?
I. Proficiency in applying internal auditing standards, procedures, and techniques.
II. Proficiency in accounting principles and techniques.
III. An understanding of management principles.
IV. An understanding of thefundamentals ofeconomics,commerciallaw,taxation,
finance, and quantitative methods.



A. I only.
B. II only.
C. I and III only.
D. I, III, and IV only.



Answer: D




QUESTION: 236
Which of the following are acceptable resources for a chief audit executive to use when
developing a staffing plan?
I. Co-sourcing arrangements.
II. Employees from other areas of the organization.



III. The organization's external auditors.
IV. The organization's audit committee members.



A. I only.
B. I and II only.
C. II and IV only.
D. I, II, and IV only.



Answer: B


QUESTION: 237
Which of the following would be a violation of the IIA Code of Ethics?



A. Reporting information that could be damaging to the organization, at the request of a
court of law.
B. Including an issue in the final audit report after management has resolved the issue.
C.Participatinginan auditengagementforwhich the auditor does nothave the
necessary experience or training.
D. Accepting a gift that is a commercial advertisement available to the public.


Answer: C

QUESTION: 238
Which of thefollowingis notanappropriate objectivefora qualityassurance and
improvement program?



A. Continually monitor the internal audit activity's effectiveness.
B. Assure conformance with the Standards and Code of Ethics.
C. Perform an internal assessment at least once every five years.
D. Communicate the results of quality assessments to the board.



Answer: C



QUESTION: 239
Accordingtothe International Professional Practices Framework,which of the
following is true with respect to the different roles in the risk management process?
I. Boards have an oversight role.
II. Acceptance of residual risks can reside with the chief audit executive.
III. Theboard candelegatetheoperationoftherisk management framework tothe
management team.
IV. Theinternal auditactivity's rolecanrangefrom havingnoresponsibilities to
managing and coordinating the process.


A. I only.
B. II and IV only.
C. I, III, and IV only.
D. I, II, III, and IV.



Answer: C



QUESTION: 240
Which of the following types of risk factors are used within risk models to establish the
priority of internal audit engagements?
I. Management competence.
II. Quality of internal controls.
III. Audit staff experience.
IV. Regulatory requirements.



A. II only.
B. I, II, and III only.
C. I, II, and IV only.
D. I, III, and IV only.



Answer: C


QUESTION: 241
Which of the following is not an appropriate type of coordination between the internal
audit activity and regulatory auditors?



A.Regulatoryauditors share theirperspectiveon riskmanagement,control,and
governance with the internal auditors.
B. Internal auditors perform fieldwork at the direction of the regulatory auditors.
C. Internal auditors review copies of regulatory reports in planning related internal
engagements.
D. Regulatory and internal auditors exchange information about planned activities.



Answer: B


QUESTION: 242
An organization's accounts payable function improved its internal controls significantly
after it received an unsatisfactory audit report. When planning a follow-up audit of the
function,whatlevel ofdetection risk shouldbeexpected ifthe auditandsampling
procedures used are unchanged from the prior audit?

A. Detection risk is lower because control risk is lower.
B. Detection risk is lower because control risk is higher.
C. Detection risk is higher because control risk is lower.



D. Detection risk is unchanged although control risk is lower.



Answer: D


QUESTION: 243
Which of the following is an appropriate role for the board in governance?



A.Preparingwritten organizational policies thatrelatetocompliancewithlaws,
regulations, ethics, and conflicts of interest.
B. Ensuring that financial statements are understandable, transparent, and reliable.
C. Assisting the internal audit activity in performing annual reviews of governance.
D.Workingwith the organization's attorneys todevelopa strategy regardingcurrent
litigation, pending litigation, or regulatory proceedings governance.



Answer: B


QUESTION: 244
Accordingtothe International Professional Practices Framework,which of the
following are allowable activities for an internal auditor?
I. Advocating the establishment of a risk management function.
II. Identifying and evaluating significant risk exposures during audit engagements.
III. Developing a risk response for the organization if there is no chief risk officer.
IV. Benchmarking risk management activities with other organizations.
V. Documenting risk mitigation strategies and techniques.



A. IV and V only.
B. I, II, and III only.
C. I, II, IV, and V only.
D. II, III, IV, and V only.



Answer: C

QUESTION: 245
Accordingtothe International Professional Practices Framework,which of the
following should be stated in the internal audit charter?
I. Authorization for access to records.
II. The internal audit activity's position within the organization.
III. The relationship between the internal audit activity and the board.
IV. The scope of internal audit activities.



A. I and IV only.
B. II and III only.
C. I, II, and IV only.


D. I, II, III, and IV.


Answer: C


QUESTION: 246
Which of the following is not an appropriate role for internal auditors after a disaster
occurs?



A. Monitor the effectiveness of the recovery and control of operations.
B. Correct deficiencies of the entity's business continuity plan.
C. Recommend future improvements to the entity's business continuity plan.
D. Assistintheidentification of lessons learnedfromthe disaster and the recovery
operations.



Answer: B


QUESTION: 247
Which component is the foundation of the COSO internal control framework?


A. Risk assessment.
B. Control environment.
C. Control activities.
D. Monitoring.



Answer: B

QUESTION: 248
Which of the following best describes the underlying premise of the COSO enterprise
risk management framework?



A. Management should set objectives before assessing risk.
B. Every entity exists to provide value for its stakeholders.
C. Policies are established to ensure that risk responses are performed effectively.
D. Enterprise risk management can minimize the impact and likelihood of unanticipated
events.



Answer: B



QUESTION: 249
Which of the following is an example of sharing risk?


A. An organization redesigned a business process to change the risk pattern.
B. An organization outsourced a portion of its services to a third-party service provider.
C. An organization sold an unprofitable business unit to its competitor.
D. In ordertospread totalrisk,anorganization usedmultiplevendors forcritical
materials.

Answer: B




QUESTION: 250
A records management system is an example of what type of control?

A. Preventive.
B. Detective.
C. Corrective.
D. Directive.


Answer: A


QUESTION: 251
Which of the following procedures is nota step that an auditor would perform when
planning an audit of an organization?


A. Obtaining detailed knowledge about the organization.
B. Obtaining a management representation letter.
C. Assessing the audit risk of the organization.
D. Having discussions with the organization's management team.



Answer: B


QUESTION: 252
Which of thefollowing riskassessmenttoolswouldbestfacilitate thematchingof
controls to risks?




A. Control matrix.
B. Internal control questionnaire.
C. Control flowchart.
D. Program evaluation and review technique (PERT) analysis.



Answer: A


QUESTION: 253
Whichof thefollowingfactors shouldbe considered when determining thestaff
requirements for an audit engagement?
I. The internal audit activity's time constraints.
II. The nature and complexity of the area to be audited.
III. The period of time since the area was last audited.
IV. The auditors' preference to audit the area.
V. The results of a preliminary risk assessment of the activity under review.




A. I and IV only.
B. I, II, and V only.
C. II, III, and V only.
D. I, II, III, IV, and V.


Answer: B



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 out from the VM.
 F. Operates by allocating disk storage space in a flexible manner among multiple users,
 based on the minimum space required by each user at any given time.


 Answer: B, C,
 D


 QUESTION: 50
 Which two ports are used by Intercloud fabric tunnel ports? (Choose two.)


 A. TCP 6644 and 6646
 B. TCP 6000 and 7010
 C. UDP 6644 and 6646
 D. TCP 7000 and 7010


 C
 Answer: A,


 QUESTION: 51
 A cloud administrator is designing security policies for a hybrid cloud using Cisco
 Intercloud Fabric. Which two security capabilities does Intercloud Fabric provide for
 hybrid clouds. (Choose two.)


 A. open access cloud VMs
 B. Encrypted VM to VM communication
 C. open access site-to-site communication
 D. role-based access control on cloud resources


 D
 Answer: B,



 QUESTION: 52

 Which three teases are provided by the Cisco Secure Cloud Extension? (Choose three)


 A. new model for mapping applications to the network
 B. advanced switching features for applications that run in the provider cloud
 C. web portals that generate revenue
 D. support for services such as zone-base firewall and touting in the provider cloud
 E. designed to abstract the instantiation of network policy and forwarding from basic
 network constructs (VLANs and subnets)









 F. secure Layer 2 network extension (rom a private cloud to a provider cloud


 Answer: B, D,
 F


 QUESTION: 53
 A cloud administrator is considering methods for securing the cloud infrastructure.


 Which three statements about data plane protection are true? (Choose three.)


 A. You must preplan security policies and test them thoroughly before you implement
 them in an automated fashion.
 B. Define security policies alter the creation of virtual machine environments.
 C. Storing sensitive information on the cloud is permissible as long as the data center
 architecture is resilient.
 D. Out-of-date corporate security policies contribute to data exposure.
 E. Encrypting data at rest on the disk is extremely helpful in assuring data protection
 within a cloud-based data center.
 F. Data encryption is enforced only when an application requires it.


 Answer: A, B,
 E


 QUESTION: 54


 Which three network services are offered by Microsoft Azure? (Choose three.)


 A. elastic load balancing
 B. traffic manager route incoming traffic for high performance and availability
 C. intrusion detection systems, load balancing, firewalls
 D. virtual private networks to be deployed and managed
 E. virtual network provision private networks, optionally connect to on-premises
 datacenters
 F. express route dedicated private network fiber connections to Azure


 Answer: B, E,
 F


 QUESTION: 55

 Which statement about VACS is true?


 A. It provides centralized provisioning and orchestration (or physical and virtual









 networking.
 B. It is designed around open standards and open APIs.
 C. It provides scalable and multi protocol controller infrastructure for supporting

 multiple service providers and services.
 D. Delivers a comprehensive cloud management solution spanning service offerings
 from underlying infrastructure lo anything-as-a-service platforms.


 Answer: D


 QUESTION: 56
 Which two statements about designing an application stack using Stack Designer are

 true? (Choose two)


 A. Using Stack Designer, application stack se-vices ate created by removing the
 application component in containers.
 B. Using the Slack Designer module in the prime service catalog, the application stacks
 can be designed as a template and published as orderable services in the Service catalog
 storefront.
 C. When an application template order b completed, all provisioned applications are
 displayed in My Stuff > Designer Template.
 D. The Application Slack-as-a-Service feature enables you to design Product-as-a-
 Service templates and services.


 Answer: B,
 C


 QUESTION: 57
 Which large-scale Layer 2 connectivity protocol is best (or VLAN address space that is
 limited in large networks?


 A. VXLAN
 B. OTV
 C. USP
 D. VPN
 E. NvGRE


 Answer: A












 QUESTION: 58
 A cloud administrator must deploy a private Cloud. The design is focused on the need to
 accelerate applications delivered from private and virtual private cloud infrastructure,
 using policy-based on-demand orchestration. Which two products are the most
 beneficial to these efforts. (Choose two.)


 A. VSG
 B. Cisco Nexus 1000v
 C. ASAv
 D. vNAM
 E. Cisco vWAAS


 E
 Answer: B,


 QUESTION: 59

 ABC Company offers servicesthat are tailored for different vertical markets. They want
 to use Software-as-a-Service but they are concerned about security. Which cloud type is
 best for them?


 A. private cloud
 B. hybrid cloud
 C. public cloud
 D. community cloud


 Answer: B


 QUESTION: 60
 A cloud administrator is considering storage for a deployment. The admin needs a
 solution that is durable and reliable and fits the need for storing media, web assets, and
 backups. Which solution meets this need the best?


 A. Cloud file storage
 B. Cloud block storage
 C. Cloud hybrid storage
 D. Cloud NFS storage


 Answer: C








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 QUESTION: 394
 The costs that provide a benefit to a company over more than one accounting period are
 called:


 A. Capital expenses
 B. Revenue expenses
 C. Asset expenses
 D. Manufacturing equipments expenses



 Answer: A


 QUESTION: 395
 _________________ are potential obligations that will materialize only if certain events
 occur in future.


 A. Warranties returns
 B. Liability omissions
 C. Contingent liabilities
 D. Concealed expenses



 Answer: C

 QUESTION: 396
 AccordingtoAccountingChangesandErrorsCorrections,whichofthefollowing is
 NOT the type accounting change that must be disclosed to avoid misleading the user of
 financial statements?


 A. accounting principles
 B. estimates
 C. reporting entities
 D. liability omissions



 Answer: D


 QUESTION: 397
 Improper asset valuations usually fall into which of the following category?

 A. Inventory valuation
 B. Accounts receivable
 C. Business combinations
 D. All of the above













 Answer: D

 QUESTION: 398
 To debit accounts receivables and credit sales is the typical entry under:

 A. Fictitious account payables
 B. Fictitious account receivables
 C. Failure to write off account receivables
 D. Failure to write off account payables




 Answer: B

 QUESTION: 399
 Which ofthefollowing is NOT the schemeof fixed assets that are subjectto
 manipulation?

 A. Related party transactions
 B. Booking fictitious assets
 C. Misrepresentation asset valuation
 D. Improperly capitalizing inventory and start-up costs



 Answer: A


 QUESTION: 400
 Which type of misstatements are considered relevant fro audit purpose?

 A. Misstatements arising from fraudulent financial reporting
 B. Misstatements arising from misappropriation of assets
 C. Both A and B
 D. Neither A nor B



 Answer: C


 QUESTION: 401
 In identifying risks that may result in material misstatements sue to fraud, auditors should
 consider:


 A. type of risk
 B. significance of risk
 C. pervasiveness of risk





 D. All of the above



 Answer: D


 QUESTION: 402
 Judgments about the risk of material misstatement due to fraud have an overall effect on
 how the audit is concluded in what ways?


 A. Assignment of personnel and supervision
 B. Accounting principles
 C. Predictability of auditing procedures
 D. All of the above



 Answer: D


 QUESTION: 403
 Which of the following is NOT included in financial statement analysis?

 A. Vertical analysis
 B. Horizontal analysis
 C. Fraction analysis
 D. Ratio analysis



 Answer: C


 QUESTION: 404
 A technique for analyzing the relationships between the items on an income statement,
 balance sheet, orstatementof cashflows by expressing components as percentages is
 called:

 A. Vertical analysis
 B. Horizontal analysis
 C. Fraction analysis
 D. Ratio analysis



 Answer: A


 QUESTION: 405
 A technique for analyzing the percentage change in individual financial statement items
 from one year to the next in known as:



 A. Vertical analysis
 B. Horizontal analysis
 C. Fraction analysis
 D. Ratio analysis



 Answer: B


 QUESTION: 406
 Afractionanalysisisa meansofmeasuringtherelationshipbetweentwo different
 financial statement amounts.


 A. True
 B. False

 Answer: B


 QUESTION: 407
 The formula to calculate quick ratio is:

 A. Quick ratio = (Credit + Securities + Receivables) / Current liabilities
 B. Quick ratio = (Cash + Securities + Payables) / Final liabilities
 C. Quick ratio = (Credit + Securities + Payables) / Final liabilities
 D. Quick ratio = (Cash + Securities + Receivables) / Current liabilities



 Answer: D

 QUESTION: 408
 The receivable turnover can be calculated by which of the following formula:

 A. Receivable turnover = Net Sales on Account / Average Net Receivables
 B. Receivable turnover = Gross Sales on Account / Average Gross Receivables
 C. Receivable turnover = Net Sales on Receivables / Average Net Account
 D. Receivable turnover = Gross Sales on Receivables / Average Gross Account




 Answer: A

 QUESTION: 409
 Collection ratio can be calculated by the formula:

 A. Collection Ratio = 365 / Payable Turnover
 B. Collection Ratio = 365 + Net Income / Receivable Turnover




 C. Collection Ratio = 365 / Receivable Turnover
 D. Collection Ratio = 365 + Net Sales / Receivable Turnover



 Answer: C


 QUESTION: 410
 Which of the following is the formula for the inventory turnover?


 A. Inventory turnover = Cost of Goods Purchased / Average Inventory
 B. Inventory turnover = Cost of Goods Sold / Average Inventory
 C. Inventory turnover = Cost of Goods Sold / Total Inventory
 D. Inventory turnover = Cost of Goods Purchased / Total Inventory



 Answer: B


 QUESTION: 411
 The modification of behavior through the perception of negative sanctions is called:

 A. Endorsement
 B. Deterrence
 C. Consent
 D. Authorization



 Answer: B

 QUESTION: 412
 What is considered by most professionals to be the cornerstone of an employee reporting
 program?

 A. Focus line
 B. Report Foundation
 C. Hotline
 D. Imputed Reports




 Answer: C

 QUESTION: 413
 Which of the following is NOT the type of hotline?

 A. Part-time hotline
 B. Full-time hotline



 C. Third-party hotline
 D. Detective hotline



 Answer: D


 QUESTION: 414
 According toWheelwright; branchofphilosophywhich is the systematic studyof
 reflective choice, of the standards of right and wrong by which a person is to be guided,
 and of the goods toward which it may ultimately be directed id called:

 A. Ethics
 B. Morality
 C. Legality
 D. Saintliness




 Answer: A

 QUESTION: 415
 What advocates that there are concrete ethical principles that cannot be violated?

 A. Utilitarian principle
 B. Imperative principle
 C. Functional activity
 D. Serviceable principle



 Answer: B


 QUESTION: 416
 When each situation must be evaluated on its own,in essence, the end can justify the
 means, this is referred to as:


 A. Situational ethics
 B. Situational behavior
 C. Situational principle
 D. Situational hotline



 Answer: A
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 QUESTION: 525
 The book lay open at page 77.


 A. lay open
 B. laid open
 C. lied open
 D. lain open
 E. was laid open


 Answer: A



 QUESTION: 526

 By this time next year, Johanna will begin classes at the University of Colorado.


 A. will begin classes
 B. will have begun classes
 C. has began classes
 D. should begin classes
 E. should have begun classes


 Answer: B


 QUESTION: 527







 Aftercomparingmyairconditionerwiththeoneonsale,Idecidedthatminewasthemost
 efficient.


 A. was the most efficient.
 B. should be the most efficient.
 C. was the more efficient.
 D. was by far the most efficient.
 E. should be considered the most efficient.


 Answer: C



 QUESTION: 528




 193








I would have liked to have gone swimming yesterday.



 A. to have gone swimming
 B. to go swimming
 C. to had gone swimming
 D. to go to swim
 E. to of gone swimming


 Answer: A



 QUESTION: 529



I wish I read the chapter before I tried to answer the questions.


 A. read the chapter
 B. would read the chapter
 C. should of read the chapter
 D. could have read the chapter
 E. had read the chapter


 Answer: E


 QUESTION: 530

 NathanaelWestsaidthathe'dneverhavewrittenhissatiricalnovelifhehadnotvisited



 Hollywood.


 A. have written his
 B. would have written his
 C. could of written his
 D. could have written his
 E. should of written his


 Answer: A



 QUESTION: 531
 The smell from the paper mill laid over the town like a blanket.








 194








 A. laid
 B. has lain
 C. will lie
 D. lay
 E. has laid


 Answer: D



 QUESTION: 532
 When I was halfway down the stairs, I suddenly knew what I had wanted to have said.


 A. to have said
 B. too say
 C. to have been said
 D. to had say
 E. to say


 Answer: E



 QUESTION: 533



I would be more careful if I had been you.


 A. had been
 B. would have been
 C. was
 D. were
 E. could have been


 Answer: D



 QUESTION: 534
 They read where the governor has appointed a special committee to improve the school calendar.



 A. where
 B. how
 C. were
 D. of where





 195








 E. wear


 Answer: B


 QUESTION: 535






 Instudy hallIsitbesidesPaulSmith,whoiscaptainoftheswimteamandoneofthebest


 swimmers in the state.


 A. sit besides
 B. sat beside
 C. have set beside
 D. sit beside
 E. have sit beside


 Answer: D



 QUESTION: 536

 Anna Karenina has been read with enjoyment for over 100 years.


 A. has been read
 B. will have been read
 C. shall have been read
 D. is being read
 E. was read


 Answer: A



 QUESTION: 537
 Many 19th-century biographers rely on their imaginations, not on real facts.


 A. rely on their imaginations,
 B. relied on their imaginations,
 C. have relied on their imaginations
 D. could have relied on their imaginations,
 E. could rely on their imaginations:







 196








 Answer: B



 QUESTION: 538
 The private lives of politicians, generals, and other notables fascinates the reading public.


 A. fascinates the reading
 B. have fascinated the reading
 C. will fascinate the reading
 D. fascinate the reading
 E. has fascinate the reading


 Answer: D



 QUESTION: 539

 The small man chose a seat near the door and carefully sat down.



 A. sat
 B. will sit
 C. could of sat
 D. have sit down
 E. set down


 Answer: A


 QUESTION: 540


 Last summer I worked in the chemical laboratory at the Brass Company; most of the work came

 into the lab for testing marked with the words top priority.


 A. words top priority.
 B. words-top priority.
 C. words: Top priority.
 D. words, "Top Priority."
 E. words "top priority."


 Answer: D






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 QUESTION: 525
 The book lay open at page 77.


 A. lay open
 B. laid open
 C. lied open
 D. lain open
 E. was laid open


 Answer: A



 QUESTION: 526

 By this time next year, Johanna will begin classes at the University of Colorado.


 A. will begin classes
 B. will have begun classes
 C. has began classes
 D. should begin classes
 E. should have begun classes


 Answer: B


 QUESTION: 527







 Aftercomparingmyairconditionerwiththeoneonsale,Idecidedthatminewasthemost
 efficient.


 A. was the most efficient.
 B. should be the most efficient.
 C. was the more efficient.
 D. was by far the most efficient.
 E. should be considered the most efficient.


 Answer: C



 QUESTION: 528




 193








I would have liked to have gone swimming yesterday.



 A. to have gone swimming
 B. to go swimming
 C. to had gone swimming
 D. to go to swim
 E. to of gone swimming


 Answer: A



 QUESTION: 529



I wish I read the chapter before I tried to answer the questions.


 A. read the chapter
 B. would read the chapter
 C. should of read the chapter
 D. could have read the chapter
 E. had read the chapter


 Answer: E


 QUESTION: 530

 NathanaelWestsaidthathe'dneverhavewrittenhissatiricalnovelifhehadnotvisited



 Hollywood.


 A. have written his
 B. would have written his
 C. could of written his
 D. could have written his
 E. should of written his


 Answer: A



 QUESTION: 531
 The smell from the paper mill laid over the town like a blanket.








 194








 A. laid
 B. has lain
 C. will lie
 D. lay
 E. has laid


 Answer: D



 QUESTION: 532
 When I was halfway down the stairs, I suddenly knew what I had wanted to have said.


 A. to have said
 B. too say
 C. to have been said
 D. to had say
 E. to say


 Answer: E



 QUESTION: 533



I would be more careful if I had been you.


 A. had been
 B. would have been
 C. was
 D. were
 E. could have been


 Answer: D



 QUESTION: 534
 They read where the governor has appointed a special committee to improve the school calendar.



 A. where
 B. how
 C. were
 D. of where





 195








 E. wear


 Answer: B


 QUESTION: 535






 Instudy hallIsitbesidesPaulSmith,whoiscaptainoftheswimteamandoneofthebest


 swimmers in the state.


 A. sit besides
 B. sat beside
 C. have set beside
 D. sit beside
 E. have sit beside


 Answer: D



 QUESTION: 536

 Anna Karenina has been read with enjoyment for over 100 years.


 A. has been read
 B. will have been read
 C. shall have been read
 D. is being read
 E. was read


 Answer: A



 QUESTION: 537
 Many 19th-century biographers rely on their imaginations, not on real facts.


 A. rely on their imaginations,
 B. relied on their imaginations,
 C. have relied on their imaginations
 D. could have relied on their imaginations,
 E. could rely on their imaginations:



 Answer: B



 QUESTION: 538
 The private lives of politicians, generals, and other notables fascinates the reading public.


 A. fascinates the reading
 B. have fascinated the reading
 C. will fascinate the reading
 D. fascinate the reading
 E. has fascinate the reading


 Answer: D



 QUESTION: 539

 The small man chose a seat near the door and carefully sat down.



 A. sat
 B. will sit
 C. could of sat
 D. have sit down
 E. set down


 Answer: A


 QUESTION: 540


 Last summer I worked in the chemical laboratory at the Brass Company; most of the work came

 into the lab for testing marked with the words top priority.


 A. words top priority.
 B. words-top priority.
 C. words: Top priority.
 D. words, "Top Priority."
 E. words "top priority."


 Answer: D


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