Get Pass IT Certification Exams Test – 2V0-602 VMWare Crazy Exam Dumps

https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/2V0-602

QUESTION 306
An administrator needs to verify that vMotion operations can be performed in a vSphere data center.
What round trip time (RTT) latency is the maximum value that will allow vMotion operations to succeed?

A. 50ms RTT
B. 100ms RTT
C. 150ms RTT
D. 200ms RTT


Answer: B

QUESTION 307
Which two SMTP Notification Event Details are specific to alarms triggered by events? (Choose two.)

A. User Name
B. Summary
C. Old Status
D. Target


Answer: A,B


QUESTION 308
Which two statements about virtual switches in vSphere 6.x virtual networking are true? (Choose two.)


A. Monitors metadata about communications that occur in a network.
B. Creates isolated networks for testing and development.
C. Attaches virtual machines to the physical network.
D. Performs load balancing.

Answer: C,D


QUESTION 309
An administrator has configured an alarm to be notified when a virtual machine meets either of these conditions:
High virtual CPU
High active memory consumption.
The alarm is only triggering when both of the conditions are met.
What can be done to correct the alarm behavior?


A. Edit the alarm and select Trigger if ANY of the following conditions are satisfied.
B. Edit the alarm and select Trigger if ALL of the following conditions are satisfied.
C. Create two separate alarms, one for CPU and one for memory and link them together with ESXCLI.
D. Delete the existing alarm and create a new event based alarm.

Answer: A





QUESTION 310
A company has decided to implement Virtual SAN within their vSphere 6.x environment.
The Virtual SAN cluster will be composed of three ESXi 6.x hosts that are on the Virtual SAN Ready Node list.
Each ESXi host includes:
The company will pilot a Virtual SAN cluster utilizing VMware best practices while
maximizing storage capacity. The Virtual SAN cluster will use Manual Mode.
Which two Disk Group configurations would meet the stated configuration requirements? (Choose two.)

A. 4 disk groups with 1 SSD and 5 MDs each
B. 2 disk groups with 1 SSD and 7 MDs each
C. 2 disk groups with 2 SSDs and 7 MDs each
D. 2 disk groups with 1 SSD and 10 MDs each

Answer: A,B

QUESTION 311
What two files are created when the Take snapshot operation is executed? (Choose two.)

A. .delta.vmdk
B. .nvram
C. .vmsn
D. .lck

Answer: A,C

Explanation: References:

QUESTION 312
VMware vRealize Log Insight can be configured to send notification events to which endpoint?

A. vRealize Infrastructure Navigator
B. vRealize Configuration Manager
C. vRealize Operations Manager
D. vCenter Server

Answer: C

Explanation: References:

QUESTION 313
What are three goals of resource management within a cluster? (Choose three.)

A. To prevent virtual machines from monopolizing resources and to guarantee predictable service rates.
B. To exploit undercommitted resources and overcommit with graceful degradation.
C. To provide solutions to potential problems that you might encounter when using vCenter Server.
D. To control the relative importance of virtual machines and provide flexible dynamic partitioning.
E. To provide additional network administration capabilities.

Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION 314
When modifying a vApp, which two vSphere entities can be added? (Choose two.)

A. A resource pool
B. A network pool
C. A vApp
D. A folder

Answer: A,C

QUESTION 315
An administrator has been tasked with enabling High Availability (HA) on a cluster in a vSphere 6.x environment with
default settings. The cluster configures properly and there are no errors.
The next day when powering on a virtual machine, an error is presented:
Not Enough Failover Resources
Which three scenarios are likely causes of this error message? (Choose three.)

A. The default VM Monitoring Sensitivity is set too high.
B. There are not enough datastore heartbeat datastores configured by default.
C. The default slot size in the cluster is set too high.
D. There are virtual machines with large CPU reservations.
E. A host is in maintenance mode for a replacement of a failed Hard Drive.

Answer: C,D,E

QUESTION 316
How many Link Aggregation Groups (LAGs) can be configured on a vSphere 6.x Distributed Switch?

A. 64
B. 96
C. 128
D. 256

Answer: A

QUESTION 317
Which three connection types are available when configuring a vSwitch in the vSphere Web Client? (Choose three.)

A. VMkernel Network Adapter
B. Physical Network Adapter
C. Virtual Machine Port Group for a Standard Switch
D. vMotion Network Adapter
E. vSAN Network Adapter

Answer: A,B,C




QUESTION 318
Refer to the Exhibit. An administrator has configured a host profile so that ESXi 6.x hosts will point to the corporate
NTP server for time synchronization. The NTP server is located at 10.0.30.213, but time has not been synchronized
properly across the ESXi hosts.



The administrator reviews Host Profile settings as shown in the Exhibit.
Which two steps are required to resolve the issue? (Choose two.)


A. Correct the NTP server IP address.
B. Check the host for host profile compliance.
C. Remediate the host based on the updated host profile.
D. Change the NTP server to the FQDN as IP Addresses are not supported.

Answer: A,C



QUESTION 319
An organization has a number of virtual machines that would benefit from Fault Tolerance.
These include:
A single vCPU Apache Server
A dual vCPU vCenter Server
A quad vCPU SQL Server
An eight vCPU Hadoop Server
Which two virtual machines can be configured to use VMware Fault Tolerance? (Choose two.)





A. Apache Server
B. vCenter Server
C. SQL Server
D. Hadoop Server

Answer: A,C



 For More exams visit https://killexams.com




 Kill your exam at First Attempt....Guaranteed!

HP Bring Ultimate Exams & Certification Solutions of HPE6-A15

https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/HPE6-A15

HP



HPE6-A15



Aruba Certified ClearPass Professional 6.5




 Download Full version :https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/HPE6-A15



 QUESTION: 90
 Based on the Enforcement Policy configuration shown, which Enforcement Profile will
 an employee receive when connecting an iOS device to for the first time using EAP-
 PEAP?



 A. Deny Access Profile
 B. Onboard Device Repository
 C. Cannot be determined
 D. Onboard Post-Provisioning -Aruba
 E. Onboard Pre-Provisioning -Aruba



 Answer: E



 QUESTION: 91

 Which component of a ClearPass Service is mandatory?


 A. Authorization Source
 B. Profiler
 C. Role Mapping Policy
 D. Enforcement
 E. Posture



 Answer: D


 QUESTION: 92
 Refer to the screen capture. The following is seen in the Licensing tab of the Publisher



 after a cluster has been formed between a publisher (192.168.0.53) and subscriber
 (192.168.0.54): What is the maximum number of clients that can be Onboarded on the
 subscriber node?


 A. 1000
 B. 550
 C. 25
 D. 525
 E. 500



 Answer: B


 QUESTION: 93
 Under which circumstances is it necessary to use an SNMP based Enforcement prune to
 send a VLAN?


 A. when a VLAN must be assigned to a wired user on an Aruba Mobility Controller
 B. when a VLAN must be assigned to a wireless user on an Aruba Mobility Controller
 C. when a VLAN must be assigned to a wired user on a third party wired switch that
 does not support RADIUS return attributes
 D. when a VLAN must be assigned to a wired user on an Aruba Mobility Access Switch
 E. when a VLAN must be assigned to a wired user on a third party wired switch that
 does not support RADIUS accounting


 Answer: A



 QUESTION: 94
 Based on me network topology diagram shown, how many clusters are needed for this

 deployment?



 A. 1

 B. 2

 C. 3

 D. 4
 E. 8



 Answer: D



 QUESTION: 95

 Based on me Policy configuration shown, which VLAN will be assigned when a user
 with ClearPass role Engineer authenticates to the network successfully on Saturday

 using connection protocol WEBAUTH?



 A. Deny Access
 B. Employee VLAN
 C. Internet VLAN
 D. Full Access VLAN



 Answer: B


 QUESTION: 96
 The ClearPass Event Viewer displays an error when a user authenticates with EAP-TLS

 to ClearPass through an Aruba Controller Wireless Network. What is the cause of this
 error?



 A. The controllers shared secret used during the certificate exchange is incorrect.
 B. The NAS source interface IP is incorrect.
 C. The client sent an incorrect shared secret for the 802 1X authentication.
 D. The controller used an incorrect shared secret for the RADIUS authentication.
 E. The client's shared secret used during the certificate exchange is incorrect.



 Answer: D


 QUESTION: 97
 An employee provisions a personal smart phone using the Onboard process in addition
 the employee has a corporate laptop provided by IT that connects to the secure network

 How many licenses does the employee consume?


 A. 1 Policy Manager license. 2 Guest licenses
 B. 2 Policy Manager licenses. 1 Onboard License
 C. 1 Posey Manager license. 1 Onboard License
 D. 1 Policy Manager license. 1 Guest License

 E. 2 Policy Manager licenses. 2 Onboard Licenses


 Answer: B



 QUESTION: 98
 Why can the Onguard posture check not be performed during 802.1 x authentication?


 A. Health Checks can not be used with 802.1x
 B. Onguard uses RADIUS, so an additional service must be created.
 C. Onguard uses HTTPS, so an additional service must be created.
 D. Onguard uses TACACS, so an additional service must be created.
 E. 802.1x is already secure, so Onguard is not needed



 Answer: A


 For More exams visit https://killexams.com
�


 Kill your exam at First Attempt....Guaranteed!

Get AZ-300 Microsoft Best IT Certifications Exams Material

https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/AZ-300

 QUESTION: 46
 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each
 question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets
 the stated goals. You need to meet the vendor notification requirement. Solution:
 Configure notifications in the Azure API Management instance. Does the solution meet
 the goal?



 A. Yes
 B. No



 Answer: A

 References:
 https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/api-management-howto-
 configurenotifications



 QUESTION: 47
 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each
 question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets
 the stated goals. You need to meet the vendor notification requirement. Solution: Update
 the Delivery API to send emails by using a cloud-based email service. Does the solution
 meet the goal?



 A. Yes
 B. No



 Answer: B

 References:
 https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/api-management-howto-
 configurenotifications



 QUESTION: 48
 You need to meet the vendor notification requirement. Solution: Create and apply a
 custom outbound Azure API Management policy. Does the solution meet the goal?




 A. Yes
 B. No



 Answer: B

 References:
 https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/api-management-howto-
 configurenotifications



 QUESTION: 49
 You need to resolve the delivery API error. What should you do?



 A. Implement simple retry by using the EnableRetryOnFailure feature of Entity
 Framework.
 B. Implement exponential backoff by using the EnableRetryOnFailure feature of Entity
 Framework.
 C. Implement a Circuit Breaker pattern by using the EnableRetryOnFailure feature of
 Entity Framework.
 D. Invoke a custom execution strategy in Entity Framework.



 Answer: B


 References:
 https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-develop-error-
 messages



 QUESTION: 50
 You need to implement the purchase requirement. What should you do?



 A. Use the Bot Framework REST API conversation operations to send the user�s voice
 and the Speech Service API to recognize intents.
 B. Use the Direct Line REST API to send the user�s voice and the Speech Service API
 to recognize intents.
 C. Use the Speech Service API to send the user�s voice and the Bot Framework REST
 API conversation operations to recognize intents.
 D. Use the Bot Framework REST API attachment operations to send the user�s voice
 and the Speech Service API to recognize intents.





 Answer: A


 QUESTION: 51
 You need to meet the security requirements. What should you use?


 A. HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS)
 B. Direct Line API
 C. Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
 D. Bot Framework Portal
 E. Bot Framework authentication


 Answer: E


 QUESTION: 52
 HOTSPOT
 You need to update the Inventory API. Which development tools should you use? To
 answer, select the appropriate options in the answer areA.
 NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.



 Answer:



 QUESTION: 53
 You need to debug the user greeting issue. What should you use?



 A. Azure Application Insights
 B. Bot Framework Emulator
 C. Bot Framework Channel Inspector
 D. Bot Connector service
 E. Azure Compote Emulator



 Answer: A



For More exams visit https://killexams.com/vendors-exam-list




 Kill your exam at First Attempt....Guaranteed!

Cisco certification Exam of 700-265, Cisco exam preparation for 700-265

https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/700-265

 QUESTION: 84
 Which Cisco offering focuses on developing logical product suites grouped by domains?



 A. Internet of Everything
 B. SmartNet
 C. Smart License
 D. Cisco Expo
 E. Collaborative Services
 F. Cisco ONE



 Answer: F



 QUESTION: 85
 Which trait of Cisco security solutions addresses the worry that a customer's security
 provider will leave the market or reach end-of-life?



 A. familiarity
 B. functionality
 C. robustness
 D. cost
 E. stability



 Answer: E



 QUESTION: 86
 Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?

 A. Identity Services Engine
 B. Cisco Talos Security
 C. TrustSec
 D. Next Generation Firewall
 E. Cisco Security Manager



 Answer: B




 QUESTION: 87
 Which three main points of the Cisco Security & Threat Landscape module are true?
 (Choose three.)


 A. An effective security solution provides customers with the necessary tools and
 resources to overcome their ever-growing security challenges.
 B. The Cisco Security Solutions Portfolio drives customer business outcomes.
 C. The business case for security is defined in the threat landscape.
 D. The threat landscape is expanding and increasing costs for customers.
 E. Customers need an easy to manage and fully integrated solution.
 F. Customers must understand how vulnerable they are.


 Answer: A, B, E


 QUESTION: 88
 Which two options are solutions and features of the campus and branch threat-centric
 solution? (Choose two.)


 A. NGFW and NGIPS
 B. file retrospection and trajectory
 C. enabled and protected investments
 D. behavioral indication of compromise
 E. network analytics


 Answer: C, E


 QUESTION: 89
 Which option lists business outcomes that most customers are working to achieve in
 response to the current security threat landscape?


 A. complete protection, increased fragmentation, enabled business
 B. increased scalability, visibility and control, blocking only current threats
 C. increased scalability, blocking only current threats, enabled business
 D. complete protection, visibility and control, enabled business


 Answer: D




 QUESTION: 90
 Which two actions must partners do during the asset management phase of the software
 lifecycle? (Choose two.)


 A. Create deep analytics and customized reports about license optimization.
 B. Develop a new strategy based on expected needs.
 C. Track utilization rates to understand current license efficacy
 D. Help customers understand how new infrastructure is superior.
 E. Offer activation services.


 Answer: A, C

 https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/services/technical/asset-management.html#~stickynav=2


 QUESTION: 91
 Which two options are solutions and features of the email threat-centric solution?
 (Choose two.)


 A. additional email security
 B. DNS-Layer Security
 C. CTD and Network Analytics
 D. Advanced Malware Protection
 E. Cloud App Security


 Answer: B, C
 http://www.intersecthealth.net/Threat-Centric.html


 QUESTION: 92
 Which two options are features of Cisco Enterprise License Agreements? (Choose two.)


 A. limited consumption models
 B. up-front pricing
 C. one agreement for each part of the business
 D. unforeseen costs and fees down the road
 E. organic growth up to 20%
 F. short-term lifespan under 1 year




 Answer: B, E


 QUESTION: 93
 Which primary customer challenge is brought by the wide variety of security solution
 providers on the market?


 A. choosing the right provider
 B. contacting all providers for information
 C. finding a low-cost option
 D. determining the single best security product


 Answer: A

brain dumps 70-417 Microsoft Latest Material

https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/70-417

Question: 590
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has following storage spaces:
� Data
� Users
� Backups
� Primordial
You add an additional hard disk to Server1.
You need to identify which storage space contains the new hard disk.
Which storage space contains the new disk?
A. Primordial
B. Data
C. Backups
D. Users


Answer: A
Explanation:
New Disks (Unallocated space) added to Primordial space Primordial Pool? All storage that meets acceptable criteria for Storage Spaces will be placed in
the Primordial Pool. This can be considered the default pool for devices from which any other pools will be created. Notice that there are no other virtual
disks or pools at this point. The Primordial Pool will only consist of physical storage devices that do not belong to any other pools.


References:
http://blogs.technet.com/b/canitpro/archive/2012/12/13/storage-pools-dive-right-in.aspx
http://blogs.technet.com/b/askpfeplat/archive/2012/10/10/windows-server-2012-storagespaces-is- it for-youcould-be.aspx
Question: 591
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You create a group Managed Service Account named gservice1.
You need to configure a service named Service1 to run as the gservice1 account.
How should you configure Service1?
A. From a command prompt, run sc.exe and specify the config parameter.
B. From a command prompt, run sc.exe and specify the sdset parameter.
C. From the Services console, configure the General settings.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run Set-Service and specify the -PassThrough parameter.


Answer: A
Explanation:
Executing the sc.exe command with the config parameter will modify service configuration. To specify a binary path for the NEWSERVICE service, type: sc
config NewService binpath= "ntsd -d c:windowssystem32NewServ.exe"
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc990290.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc738230(v=ws.10).aspx
Question: 592

You have a server named Data1 that runs a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard.
You need to configure Data1 to run a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum
amount of administrative effort.
What should you perform?
A. An online servicing by using Dism


B. An offline servicing by using Dism
C. An upgrade installation of Windows Server 2012 R2
D. A clean installation of Windows Server 2012 R2

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. Not least effort
B. Not least effort
C. dism /online /set-edition
D. offline would be less ideal and more work ex: DISM /online /Set-Edition:ServerEnterprise /ProductKey:489J6-VHDMP-X63PK-3K798-CPX3YWindows
Server 2008 R2/2012 contains a command-line utility called DISM (Deployment Image Servicing and Management tool). This tool has many features, but one
of those features is the ability to upgrade the edition of Windows in use. Note that this process is for upgrades only and is irreversible. You cannot set a
Windows image to a lower edition. The lowest edition will not appear when you run the /Get-Target Editions option. If the server is running an evaluation
version of Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard or Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter, you can convert it to a retail version as follows:
If the server is a domain controller, you cannot convert it to a retail version. In this case, install an additional domain controller on a server that runs a retail
version and remove AD DS from the domain controller that runs on the evaluation version. From an elevated command prompt, determine the current edition
name with the command DISM /online /Get-CurrentEdition. Make note of the edition ID, an abbreviated form of the edition name. Then run DISM /online
/Set-Edition:<edition ID> /ProductKey:XXXXXXXXXX-XXXXX-XXXXXXXXXX
/AcceptEula, providing the edition ID and a retail product key.
The server will restart twice.
There are a couple of ways to install the GUI from the command prompt, although both use the same tool -DISM (Deployment Image Service Manager).
When you are doing it for a single (local) server, the command is:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:�
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/windows/it-pro/windows-server-2012-R2-and-2012/jj574204(v=ws.11)
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/windows/it-pro/windows-7/dd744380(v=ws.10)
http://blogs.technet.com/b/server_core/archive/2009/10/14/upgrading-windows-server2008-r2-without-media.aspx
Question: 593
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and child.contoso.com and two sites named Site1 and Site2. The domains and the sites are configured as
shown in following table.


When the link between Site1 and Site2 fails, users fail to log on to Site2.
You need to identify what prevents the users in Site2 from logging on to the child.contoso.com domain.
What should you identify?
A. The placement of the infrastructure master
B. The placement of the global catalog server
C. The placement of the domain naming master
D. The placement of the PDC emulator

Answer: B

Explanation:
User logon. In a forest that has more than one domain, two conditions require the global catalog during user authentication:
In a domain that operates at the Windows 2000 native domain functional level or higher, domain controllers must request universal group membership
enumeration from a global catalog server. When a user principal name (UPN) is used at logon and the forest has more than one domain, a global catalog
server is required to resolve the name.
References:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc728188(v=ws.10).aspx
Question: 594

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You plan to create an image of Server1.
You need to remove the source files for all server roles that are not installed on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. dism.exe
B. servermanagercmd.exe
C. ocsetup.exe
D. imagex.exe


Answer: A

Explanation:
The Dism utility can be used to create and mount an image of Server1.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The ServerManagerCmd.exe command-line tool has been deprecated in Windows Server 2008 R2.
C: The Ocsetup.exe tool isused as a wrapper for Package Manager (Pkgmgr.exe) and for Windows Installer (Msiexec.exe). Ocsetup.exe is a command-line
utility that can be used to perform scripted installs and scripted uninstalls of Windows optional components. The Ocsetup.exe tool replaces the Sysocmgr.exe
tool that Windows XP and Windows Server 2003 use.
D: ImageX is a command-line tool in Windows Vista that you can use to create and manage Windows image (.wim) files. A .wim file contains one or more
volume images, disk volumes that contain images of an installed Windows operating system.
References:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh824822.aspx
http://blogs.technet.com/b/joscon/archive/2010/08/26/adding-features-with- dism.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831809.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh825265.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc749447(v=ws.10).aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd744382(v=ws.10).asp
Question: 595

Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.



You plan to schedule a complete backup of Server1 by using Windows Server Backup.
You need to ensure that the state of VM1 is saved before the backup starts.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization


Answer: I

Explanation:
Backup Operations in Hyper-V
No VSS Writer Available?
In some cases, you need an Application-consistent backup but there is no VSS writer available. One example of this is MySQL. Hyper-V backups of virtual
machines containing MySQL will always result in either a crash consistent or an image-level backup. For MySQL, the latter is probably acceptable as MySQL
doesn�t perpetually expand the log file. However, if you�re using MySQL within a VSS-aware VM, then a Hyper-Vbased backup tool is going to take a
crashconsistent backup. MySQL (like any other database system) isn�t always recoverable from a crash-consistent backup; tool is going to take a crash-
consistent backup. MySQL (like any other database system) isn�t always recoverable from a crash-consistent backup; even when recovery is possible, it may be
painful.
MySQL is just one example; any number of line-of-business Applications could tell a similar tale. In the case of MySQL, one solution is to find a guest-level
backup Application that is MySQL- aware and can back it up properly. For Applications for which no backup Application has a plug-in, you may need to have
preand post-backup scripts that stop services or close Applications. If brief downtime is acceptable, you can disable the Backup item in Hyper-V Integration
Services, thereby forcing Hyper-V to save the state of the VM during backup. This technique results in an image-level backup and can be used on any
Application that doesn�t have a VSS writer.



References: https://www.altaro.com/hyper-v/vss-crash-consistent-vs-application-consistent-vss-backups-post-2-of-2/
Question: 596

Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.



VM3 is used to test applications.
You need to prevent VM3 from synchronizing its clock to Server1.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization


Answer: I


Explanation:
Integration Services settings on virtual machines includes services such as operating system shutdown, time synchronization, data exchange, Heart beat, and
Backup (volume snapshot services. Thus you should disable the time synchronization using Integration Services.




References:
http://blogs.technet.com/b/virtualization/archive/2008/08/29/backing-up-hyper-v-virtual-machines.aspx
Exam Ref 70-410, Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure virtual machine
settings, p. 144
Question: 597
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.



VM2 sends and receives large amounts of data over the network.
You need to ensure that the network traffic of VM2 bypasses the virtual switches of the parent partition.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization


Answer: K



Explanation:
Single-root I/O virtualization -capable network adapters can be assigned directly to a virtual machine to maximize network throughput while minimizing
network latency and the CPU overhead required for processing network traffic.
References:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc766320(v=ws.10).aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh831410.aspx
Exam Ref 70-410, Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure virtual machine
settings, p. 144
Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter 7: Hyper-V Virtualization, Lesson 2: Deploying and configuring virtual machines,
p. 335
Question: 598
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1.
You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The imagex.exe command
B. The ocsetup.exe command
C. The setup.exe command
D. The dism.exe command
E. The Install-Module cmdlet


Answer: D
Explanation:
The DISM command is called by the Add-WindowsFeature command. Here is the systax for DISM:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:Server- Gui-Shell /featurename:Server-Gui-Mgmt





Question: 599
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4.
Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.




You install a network monitoring application on VM2.
You need to ensure that all of the traffic sent to VM3 can be captured on VM2.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney


E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization


Answer: J

Explanation:
What�s New in Hyper-V Virtual Switch
Port Mirroring
With Port Mirroring, traffic sent to or from a Hyper-V Virtual Switch port is copied and sent to a mirror port.
There are a range of applications for port mirroring an entire ecosystem of network visibility companies exist that have products designed to consume port
mirror data for performance management, security analysis, and network diagnostics. With Hyper-V Virtual Switch port mirroring, you can select the switch
ports that are monitored as well as the switch port that receives copies of all the traffic.
The following examples configure port mirroring so that all traffic that is sent and received by both MyVM and MyVM2 is also sent to the VM named
MonitorVM.
Set-VMNetworkAdapter VMName MyVM PortMirroring Source
Set-VMNetworkAdapter VMName MyVM2 PortMirroring Source
Set-VMNetworkAdapter VMName MonitorVM PortMirroring Destination
References: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj679878.aspx#bkmk_portmirror


For More exams visit https://killexams.com/vendors-exam-list




 Kill your exam at First Attempt....Guaranteed!

300-550 Cisco Free Certification Exam Questions & Online Courses

https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/300-550

QUESTION: 62

How is a service ticket used when constructing a Cisco APIC-EM API request?


A. to identify the service type
B. to identify a service on the controller
C. to determine the request type
D. as a security token



Answer: B


QUESTION: 63


The network operator asks you to change the config setting on one specific host. All 300
hosts are managed with Puppet. Which action results m the requested Change?



A. This is an unsupported feature of Puppet, and Chef or Ansible must be used to make
this change.



B. Go to that host and make the config change. Puppet sees the local override and skips


that part.
C. Add anif statement to the Puppet manifest, and add specific config settings, in case




Puppet is running on that host.

D. Add a node-based variable lookup override in Hiera, so that if Puppet runs on that host,

it takes the variable from Hiera.



Answer: B


QUESTION: 64
Which two data representation formats are used in RESTCONF? (Choose two.)


A. HTML
B. YAML
C. XML
D. GML
E. ASN.1
F. JSON


Answer: A, B


QUESTION: 65
Whichfeatureenablesservicefunctionchainingtosteertraffictovirtualnetwork

functions?


A. GRE
B. VXLA
C. EH
D. NSH
E. REST


Answer: D



QUESTION: 66
Refer to the exhibit.



Which action effectively secures the controller?


A. Enable HTTP to HTTPS redirect.
B. Require complex passwords.
C. Use NAT on the router before the controller.
D. Blacklist the public WAN.

E. Whitelist the Admins network and block all others.



Answer: C


QUESTION: 67

WhichstatementindicatesthatanelementinaYANGdatamodelcontainsdatathat

describes operational state information about the device or service?


A. state true



B. config false
C. mode state
D. state enabled



Answer: B


QUESTION: 68
Drag and drop the protocol on the loft to its correct description on the right.




Answer:




QUESTION: 69
Which two tools help you to program against Nexus APIs? (Choose two.)


A. Jenkins
B. Cisco Nexus 1000v
C. VIRL
D. DevNet sandboxes
E. Cisco Open SDN Controller



Answer: A, C


QUESTION: 70

Which statement about shading in ACI is true?


A. Sharding is the technology that is designed to prevent "split-brain" scenarios in ACI
B. Sharding is the service that presents the API on a Cisco APIC

C. Sharding is the mechanism for distributing the database and configuration changes on a

Cisco APIC cluster.
D. Sharding is the distributed topology that is used in ACI (also referred to as spine-leaf).


Answer: B


 For More exams visit https://killexams.com
�



 Kill your exam at First Attempt....Guaranteed!

Try Before Buy 300-370 Cisco, Check 300-370 Cisco, Q & A Material

https://killexams.com/pass4sure/exam-detail/300-370

QUESTION: 56

A client is failing EAP authentication and a debug shows that the server is sending an
Access-Reject message. Which action must you take to resolve authentication?


A. Verify that the Validate server certificate on the client is disabled.
B. Verify that the client certificates are from the proper CA and server certificate.

C. Verify that the client server certificate has the proper Windows OlDs.
D. Verify that the user account is the same in the client certificate.
E. Verify that the user is using the same password that is on the server


Answer: B



QUESTION: 57
When implementing interface groups, how are the IP addresses sourced via DHCP for
wireless clients?


A. through the primary interface of the group
B. through round robin between interfaces
C. through interface group definition
D. through the interface receiving the first response


Answer: B


QUESTION: 58

Which three steps would a network engineer use to troubleshoot an AP join problem?

(Choose three.)


A. Validate the STP configuration.
B. Verify the ping AP from the controller.
C. Verify the ping AP from the client.
D. Verify that the AP is getting an address from the DHCP server.
E. I Validate the SNMP configuration.
F. Verify the authentication configuration parameters.


Answer: A, B,
F

QUESTION: 59
An engineer has run the debug dhcp packet enable command on the wireless LAN
controller CLI. Which field contacts the IP address offered to the client?


A. siaddr
B. ciaddr
C. chaddr
D. yiaddr
E. giaddr


Answer: C


QUESTION: 60
Refer to the exhibit.




Access points ate deployed in an office building and users report that thereal-time
communications quality of experience is poor when users walk between the elevators




The elevators are a heavy metallic obstacle, and AP 3 was installed to cover the
elevator area, which AP t and AP 2 signal does not reach Communications are
captured for a user walking from point A to point C. and it is observed that the user
iPhone device suddenly scans all bands and then roams from AP I to AP 3 somewhere
between points B and C WLAN is set to 5 GHz only. Open, default rate configuration.
Which action improves the real-time application quality of experience in this area?


A. Enable 802 11v on the WLAN
B. Enable 802 11r on the WLAN
C. Enable 802 11k on the WLAN
D. Move AP 2 to point B


Answer: B




 For More exams visit https://killexams.com
�





 Kill your exam at First Attempt....Guaranteed!