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Answer: D
Section 20: Sec Twenty (351 to 355)
Details:Critical Care Nursing Neonatal Exam
QUESTION: 351
Ifa newborn's stroke volume is about 5 mL, what is the averagepulse required to ensure
adequate cardiac output?
A. 100 bpm.
B. 145 bpm.
C. 180 bpm.
D. 195 bpm.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 352
Aneonatehas adifferentialdiagnosisofcongenitalmusculardystrophy(CMD)(laminin
alpha-2 deficiency) and exhibits hypotonia at birth with poor feeding and mild respiratory
distress. Which tests are necessary to establish the diagnosis?
A. Creatinine kinase.
B. Electromyogram, nerve conduction studies, and muscle biopsy.
C. Muscle biopsy only.
D. MRI only.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 353
The nurse is inserting a PICC for an infant who requires extended IV therapy because of very
lowbirthweight.Duringtheprocedure,theinfantmustbemonitoredforwhichofthe
following?
A. Tachycardia and tachypnea.
B. Bradycardia and hypoxia.
C. Atrial fibrillation.
D. Blood pressure.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 354
A mixed venous oxygensaturation (SvO2) level of less than 60% can indicate which of the
following?
A. Increased hemoglobin, PaO2, and/or cardiac output.
B. Decreased hemoglobin, PaO2, and/or cardiac output.
C. Decreased oxygen consumption.
D. Sepsis.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 355
A21-day-oldneonatedevelopsgreen-bronzejaundice,darkurine,claycoloredstools,
abdominaldistentionwithdistendedabdominalveins,andhepatosplenomegalywithfirm
liver. Liver biopsy and test shows extrahepatic biliary atresia, and a hepatoportoenterostomy
(Kasai procedure) is done to create a conduit between the liver and small intestine. Which
added vitamin(s) or minerals should the baby receive postoperatively?
A. Water-soluble vitamins (B-complex, C).
B. Fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K).
C. Calcium.
D. Potassium.
Answer: B
Section 21: Sec Twenty One (356 to 360)
Details:Progressive Care Certified Nurse (PCCN) Practice
QUESTION: 356
Thoracic electrical bioimpedence monitoring with 4 sets of bioimpedence electrodes and 3
ECGelectrodesisusedtoevaluatehemodynamicstatusofapostsurgicalcardiacpatient.
Where are the bioimpedence electrodes placed?
A. One set on the arms, one set on the legs, and one set on the sides of the chest.
B. Two sets bilaterally at the base of the neck and two sets on each side of the chest.
C. One set on the legs and three sets on each side of the chest.
D. One set on the arms, one set bilaterally at the base of the neck, and two sets on each side
of the chest.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 357
A 52-year-old female with a history of bipolar disease is one-day post-operative following a
hip replacement. The patient slept only one or two hours during the night and is speaking
rapidly, throwing her belongings at the nurses, and insisting she is going to leave the hospital
against medical advice. The nurse should notify:
A. The mental health crisis team
B. Social services
C. A home health agency
D. The patient's husband
Answer: A
QUESTION: 358
If all patients who develop urinary infections are evaluated per urine culture and sensitivities
for microbial resistance, but only those with clinically-evident infections are included, then
those with subclinical infections may be missed, skewing results. This is an example of:
A. Information bias
B. Selection bias
C. Hypothesis testing
D. Generalizability
Answer: B
QUESTION: 359
A28-year-oldmalewithextensivesecondandthird-degreeburnsdevelopsabdominal
discomfort and vomits cffee ground emesis and frank blood. The most likely cause is:
A. A peptic ulcer
B. The erosion of the esophagus from burns
C. Paralytic ileus
D. Stress-related erosive syndrome
Answer: D
QUESTION: 360
Beck'striad(increasedcentralvenouspressurewithdistendedneckveins,muffledheart
sounds, and hypotension) is indicative of which condition?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Aortic valve prolapse
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. Pulmonary embolism
Answer: C
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QUESTION: 64
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to create a conceptual architecture for a XenApp and
XenDesktop environment on behalf of a marketing firm. Based on some initial
discussions around the firm's business goals and objectives, the architect has collected
the information as shown in the Exhibit. Click the Exhibit button to view the
information.
Which delivery model should the architect recommend?
A. Single-Site in Citrix Cloud, single public cloud resource location
B. Multi-Site, single-zone, multiple public cloud resource locations
C. Multi-Site, single on-premises datacenter
D. Single-Site in Citrix Cloud, single on-premises resource location
E. Single-Site, single-zone, single on-premises datacenter
Answer: A
QUESTION: 65
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop
environment. The table in the Exhibit lists details about the requirements of the current
user groups and their Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machine workloads.
Click the Exhibit button to view the table.
The architect should scale the hardware used to host the VMs for User Group 1 to_
(Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. 256
B. 128
C. 384
D. 196
E. 64
Answer: C
QUESTION: 66
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop
environment. The customer previously installed all applications locally on managed
laptops and desktops but is willing to evaluate other application delivery methods as part
of the new deployment. The environment will be standardized on Windows 10 and
Windows Server 2016 for the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines.
As part of an application analysis performed earlier in the project, the information in the
Exhibit was collected regarding one of the required applications.
Click the Exhibit button to view the information.
Additionally, the customer has the following objectives: Minimize the amount of
additional infrastructure components. Minimize the server hardware required.
How should the architect install the application?
A. On an Application Layer using Citrix App Layering, be included in a layered image,
and accessed through a virtual desktop session
B. Stream it to a VDA machine using Microsoft App-V and accessed through a virtual
desktop session
C. Directly on a Server OS VDA machine and accessed from the endpoint as a published
application
D. Directly on a VDA machine image and accessed through a virtual desktop session
E. Directly on endpoint devices and included in a virtual desktop session using the Local
App Access feature
Answer: D
QUESTION: 67
Scenario: During an assessment of a Citrix Infrastructure, a Citrix Architect finds that
there are four active Sites. Each Site has one NetScaler SDX pair and two StoreFront
servers in a server group to allow access for internal and external users. Users have to
use different URLs when they access resources from different Sites. Single-factor
authentication is used for both internal and external access. NetScaler appliances are
placed in the DMZ with the appropriate firewall ports configured to allow Citrix traffic.
Many of the internal users connect using corporate-owned laptops and some external
users also connect using personal devices. The architect needs to provide a design for a
multi-tier environment with segregated internal and external traffic on the NetScaler
appliance. How many NetScaler instances and StoreFront servers are required to meet
this highly available design?
A. Eight NetScaler instances (two in each Site) and sixteen StoreFront servers (four in
each Site)
B. Four NetScaler instances (one in each Site) and eight StoreFront servers (two in each
Site)
C. Eight NetScaler instances (two in each Site) and eight StoreFront servers (two in each
Site)
D. Sixteen NetScaler instances (four in each Site) and eight StoreFront servers (two in
each Site)
Answer: B
QUESTION: 68
Scenario: A Citrix Architect has implemented a multi-location profile strategy as part of
a large XenApp and XenDesktop solution. The architect needs to implement a single
policy that sets the profile path for all users. New York users � Server:NYC-
FS.company.lan � Share: NYC-Profiles$ Miami users � Server:MIA-FS.company.lan �
Share: MIA-Profiles$ San Francisco users � Server:SFO-FS.company.lan � Share: SFO-
Profiles$ The architect has proposed the usage of the following path for all users:
\\#Loc#-FS.company.lan\#Loc#-Profiles$\#sAMAccountName#\%ProfileVer%\
What does the architect need to define in order to use the above path for all users as the
profile location?
A. A Loc variable using the Current-Location attribute
B. A new attribute called Loc using Active Directory Explorer
C. A user environment variable Loc using a login script
D. A DFS-ROOT variable per datacenter and incorporate the user environment variable
%homeshare%
Answer: C
QUESTION: 69
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is implementing a new XenApp and XenDesktop
environment. The customer has stated the following requirements:
All users must be able to aggregate resources from all Sites. Both Sites should be treated
as one equivalent farm set. User connections should be directed to the New York Site
with failover to San Francisco. Click the Exhibit button to view the StoreFront
configurations.
Exhibit 1
Exhibit 2
Based on the configurations, requirement 1 is_____, requirement 2 is _______, and
requirement 3 is_______. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. met; met; NOT met
B. NOT met; NOT met; NOT met
C. NOT met; met; NOT met
D. met; NOT met; NOT met
E. met; NOT met; met
F. met; met; met
G. NOT met; met; met
Answer: E
QUESTION: 70
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is performing a XenApp and XenDesktop design. During a
discussion with the server hardware team, two potential network configurations are
proposed for the XenServer hosts. Click the Exhibit button to view the network
configurations.
Which statement will support a decision to use Network Configuration 2?
A. It will ensure that virtual machine workloads do NOT interfere with each other.
B. It will provide greater security for all traffic types.
C. It will achieve a higher level of redundancy for the different traffic types.
D. It will reserve more bandwidth for virtual machine traffic.
Answer: C
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QUESTION: 64
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to create a conceptual architecture for a XenApp and
XenDesktop environment on behalf of a marketing firm. Based on some initial
discussions around the firm's business goals and objectives, the architect has collected
the information as shown in the Exhibit. Click the Exhibit button to view the
information.
Which delivery model should the architect recommend?
A. Single-Site in Citrix Cloud, single public cloud resource location
B. Multi-Site, single-zone, multiple public cloud resource locations
C. Multi-Site, single on-premises datacenter
D. Single-Site in Citrix Cloud, single on-premises resource location
E. Single-Site, single-zone, single on-premises datacenter
Answer: A
QUESTION: 65
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop
environment. The table in the Exhibit lists details about the requirements of the current
user groups and their Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machine workloads.
Click the Exhibit button to view the table.
The architect should scale the hardware used to host the VMs for User Group 1 to_
(Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. 256
B. 128
C. 384
D. 196
E. 64
Answer: C
QUESTION: 66
Scenario: A Citrix Architect needs to design a new XenApp and XenDesktop
environment. The customer previously installed all applications locally on managed
laptops and desktops but is willing to evaluate other application delivery methods as part
of the new deployment. The environment will be standardized on Windows 10 and
Windows Server 2016 for the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines.
As part of an application analysis performed earlier in the project, the information in the
Exhibit was collected regarding one of the required applications.
Click the Exhibit button to view the information.
Additionally, the customer has the following objectives: Minimize the amount of
additional infrastructure components. Minimize the server hardware required.
How should the architect install the application?
A. On an Application Layer using Citrix App Layering, be included in a layered image,
and accessed through a virtual desktop session
B. Stream it to a VDA machine using Microsoft App-V and accessed through a virtual
desktop session
C. Directly on a Server OS VDA machine and accessed from the endpoint as a published
application
D. Directly on a VDA machine image and accessed through a virtual desktop session
E. Directly on endpoint devices and included in a virtual desktop session using the Local
App Access feature
Answer: D
QUESTION: 67
Scenario: During an assessment of a Citrix Infrastructure, a Citrix Architect finds that
there are four active Sites. Each Site has one NetScaler SDX pair and two StoreFront
servers in a server group to allow access for internal and external users. Users have to
use different URLs when they access resources from different Sites. Single-factor
authentication is used for both internal and external access. NetScaler appliances are
placed in the DMZ with the appropriate firewall ports configured to allow Citrix traffic.
Many of the internal users connect using corporate-owned laptops and some external
users also connect using personal devices. The architect needs to provide a design for a
multi-tier environment with segregated internal and external traffic on the NetScaler
appliance. How many NetScaler instances and StoreFront servers are required to meet
this highly available design?
A. Eight NetScaler instances (two in each Site) and sixteen StoreFront servers (four in
each Site)
B. Four NetScaler instances (one in each Site) and eight StoreFront servers (two in each
Site)
C. Eight NetScaler instances (two in each Site) and eight StoreFront servers (two in each
Site)
D. Sixteen NetScaler instances (four in each Site) and eight StoreFront servers (two in
each Site)
Answer: B
QUESTION: 68
Scenario: A Citrix Architect has implemented a multi-location profile strategy as part of
a large XenApp and XenDesktop solution. The architect needs to implement a single
policy that sets the profile path for all users. New York users � Server:NYC-
FS.company.lan � Share: NYC-Profiles$ Miami users � Server:MIA-FS.company.lan �
Share: MIA-Profiles$ San Francisco users � Server:SFO-FS.company.lan � Share: SFO-
Profiles$ The architect has proposed the usage of the following path for all users:
\\#Loc#-FS.company.lan\#Loc#-Profiles$\#sAMAccountName#\%ProfileVer%\
What does the architect need to define in order to use the above path for all users as the
profile location?
A. A Loc variable using the Current-Location attribute
B. A new attribute called Loc using Active Directory Explorer
C. A user environment variable Loc using a login script
D. A DFS-ROOT variable per datacenter and incorporate the user environment variable
%homeshare%
Answer: C
QUESTION: 69
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is implementing a new XenApp and XenDesktop
environment. The customer has stated the following requirements:
All users must be able to aggregate resources from all Sites. Both Sites should be treated
as one equivalent farm set. User connections should be directed to the New York Site
with failover to San Francisco. Click the Exhibit button to view the StoreFront
configurations.
Exhibit 1
Exhibit 2
Based on the configurations, requirement 1 is_____, requirement 2 is _______, and
requirement 3 is_______. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. met; met; NOT met
B. NOT met; NOT met; NOT met
C. NOT met; met; NOT met
D. met; NOT met; NOT met
E. met; NOT met; met
F. met; met; met
G. NOT met; met; met
Answer: E
QUESTION: 70
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is performing a XenApp and XenDesktop design. During a
discussion with the server hardware team, two potential network configurations are
proposed for the XenServer hosts. Click the Exhibit button to view the network
configurations.
Which statement will support a decision to use Network Configuration 2?
A. It will ensure that virtual machine workloads do NOT interfere with each other.
B. It will provide greater security for all traffic types.
C. It will achieve a higher level of redundancy for the different traffic types.
D. It will reserve more bandwidth for virtual machine traffic.
Answer: C
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QUESTION:171
Under certain circumstances. VMware Change Block Tracking (CBT) may be
unavailable to Veeam Backup & Replication. What effect will a lack of CBT
information have on the Veeam backup job?
A. Veeam will perform a full backup automatically
B. You will not be able to later copy this file to tape or offsite
C. The backup job will fail
D. The backupjob duration will increase
Answer: C
QUESTION:172
A Backup Administrator has restored a VM, on Hyper-V, using Instant VM Recovery.
Which additional step should be taken to finalize the Instant VM Recovery process?
A. Unmount the Instant Recovery VM
B. Stop publishing
C. Migrate to production
D. Delete the Instant Recovery VM
Answer: C
QUESTION:173
Which job statistics index can be used to identify the slowest component of the data path
of a backup job?
A. Warnings
B. "Action" log
C. Processing rate
D. Bottleneck statistics
Answer: D
QUESTION:174
Which Veeam Backup & Replication feature can be used to keep the production VM
online while the production host is patched?
A. Replica seeding
B. SureReplica
C. Failback of the Replica VM
D. Planned Failover of the Replica VM
Answer: D
QUESTION:175
What are some of the benefits of using replication from HP, NetApp or EMC storage
snapshot compared to the regular replication process? (Choose the 2 appropriate
options)
A. Lower impact on WAN link
B. Lower impact on production storage
C. Lower RPO
D. Lower RTO
E. Higher transfer speed
Answer: C, D
QUESTION:176
Which of the following describes Veeam Data Mover Service function most accurately?
(Choose the 2 appropriate options)
A. Analyzes the system,installs and upgrades necessary components and services
depending on the role selected for the server
B. Deploys and coordinates executable modules that perform mainjob activities on
behalf of Veeam Backup &
Replication
C. Performs data compression, deduplication and data transfer
D. Communicates with the VSS framework during backup, replication and other jobs,
and performing recovery tasks
Answer: A, D
QUESTION:177
Match each Veeam ONE component with the correct description of its functions.
Answer area
Answer:
Exhibit
QUESTION:178
Which requirements must be met in order to perform transaction log backups tor a
database on a Microsoft SQL Server with Veeam Backup & Replication? {Choose the 2
appropriate options)
A. The recovery model for the database must be set to Simple
B. The recovery model for the database must be set to Full or Bulk-Logged.
C. No other backup tool truncates the SQL servers log files.
D. The database must have its log flies on a separate VMDK
Answer: A, B
QUESTION:179
Which of the following built-in predefined tests can be performed to verify a VM replica
started in a Virtual Lab? (Choose the 3 appropriate options)
A. Application test
B. Heartbeat test
C. Memory test
D. Hard drive test
E. CRC check
F. Ping test
Answer: A, B, F
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QUESTION:171
Under certain circumstances. VMware Change Block Tracking (CBT) may be
unavailable to Veeam Backup & Replication. What effect will a lack of CBT
information have on the Veeam backup job?
A. Veeam will perform a full backup automatically
B. You will not be able to later copy this file to tape or offsite
C. The backup job will fail
D. The backupjob duration will increase
Answer: C
QUESTION:172
A Backup Administrator has restored a VM, on Hyper-V, using Instant VM Recovery.
Which additional step should be taken to finalize the Instant VM Recovery process?
A. Unmount the Instant Recovery VM
B. Stop publishing
C. Migrate to production
D. Delete the Instant Recovery VM
Answer: C
QUESTION:173
Which job statistics index can be used to identify the slowest component of the data path
of a backup job?
A. Warnings
B. "Action" log
C. Processing rate
D. Bottleneck statistics
Answer: D
QUESTION:174
Which Veeam Backup & Replication feature can be used to keep the production VM
online while the production host is patched?
A. Replica seeding
B. SureReplica
C. Failback of the Replica VM
D. Planned Failover of the Replica VM
Answer: D
QUESTION:175
What are some of the benefits of using replication from HP, NetApp or EMC storage
snapshot compared to the regular replication process? (Choose the 2 appropriate
options)
A. Lower impact on WAN link
B. Lower impact on production storage
C. Lower RPO
D. Lower RTO
E. Higher transfer speed
Answer: C, D
QUESTION:176
Which of the following describes Veeam Data Mover Service function most accurately?
(Choose the 2 appropriate options)
A. Analyzes the system,installs and upgrades necessary components and services
depending on the role selected for the server
B. Deploys and coordinates executable modules that perform mainjob activities on
behalf of Veeam Backup &
Replication
C. Performs data compression, deduplication and data transfer
D. Communicates with the VSS framework during backup, replication and other jobs,
and performing recovery tasks
Answer: A, D
QUESTION:177
Match each Veeam ONE component with the correct description of its functions.
Answer area
Answer:
Exhibit
QUESTION:178
Which requirements must be met in order to perform transaction log backups tor a
database on a Microsoft SQL Server with Veeam Backup & Replication? {Choose the 2
appropriate options)
A. The recovery model for the database must be set to Simple
B. The recovery model for the database must be set to Full or Bulk-Logged.
C. No other backup tool truncates the SQL servers log files.
D. The database must have its log flies on a separate VMDK
Answer: A, B
QUESTION:179
Which of the following built-in predefined tests can be performed to verify a VM replica
started in a Virtual Lab? (Choose the 3 appropriate options)
A. Application test
B. Heartbeat test
C. Memory test
D. Hard drive test
E. CRC check
F. Ping test
Answer: A, B, F
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QUESTION:180
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
To meet the business goals, Proseware must convert training days into E-Leaning
courses. Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select "No change
is needed." If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the
statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. Phone Support Incidents
C. Planning Services days
D. Premier Problem Resolution Support hours
Answer: A
QUESTION:181
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it iscorrect.
Proseware is evaluating whether to move workloads from the on-premises datacenter to
the cloud. When leveraging the Microsoft Azure Hybrid Benefit, the company is
allowed to use its Windows Server licenses on up to 320 virtual cores on Azure.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select "No change is
needed." If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement
correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. Azure and the on-premises servers simultaneously
C. up to 32 Azure Virtual Machines ("Base Instances�)
D. Azure only after uninstalling Windows Server from the on-premises servers
Answer: C
QUESTION:182
Which licensing option should you recommend to meet the business goals and to
support the planned changes?
A. Enterprise Mobility + Security E3
B. Enterprise Mobility + Security E5
C. Microsoft 365 Enterprise E3
D. Microsoft 365 Enterprise E5
Answer: A
QUESTION:183
You need to identify to which Software Assurance (SA) benefits Proseware is entitled
when the company renews the EA for the existing Enterprise Products.
Which three benefits should you identity? Each correct answer presents a complete
solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Roaming Rights for Office Professional Plus
B. Roaming Rights for Windows 10 Enterprise
C. License Mobility
D. Office Online Server
E. Virtualization Rights for Windows and Windows Embedded Desktops
Answer: C, D, E
QUESTION:184
Proseware is evaluating whether to acquire Microsoft 365 Enterprise licenses for all
users. You need to identify which two characteristics of an EA meet the business goals.
Which two characteristics should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. the availability of Microsoft 365 Enterprise Add-on User Subscription Licenses
(USLs)
B. price protection for three years
C. the availability of Microsoft 365 Enterprise From SA User Subscription Licenses
(USLs)
D. extended use rights for Office servers when purchasing Microsoft 365 Enterprise
Answer: A
QUESTION:185
Which licensing option should you recommend to support the planned changes to the
on-premises datacenter?
A. Microsoft System Center 2016 Datacenter
B. Microsoft System Center Endpoint Protection
C. Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager
D. Microsoft System Center 2016 Standard
Answer: B
QUESTION:186
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Proseware is evaluating whether to license all users for Microsoft 365 Enterprise. Based
on the business goals, the company must purchase the licenses through an EA.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select "No change is
needed." If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement
correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. the Cloud Solution Provider (CSP) program
C. the Services Provider License Agreement (SPLA)
D. the Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA)
Answer: D
QUESTION:187
Which two benefits meet the business goals and support the planned changes? Each
correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one
point.
A. Microsoft SharePoint Online allows multiple users to collaborate on a document
simultaneously.
B. Microsoft Exchange Online provides built-in defenses against email threats.
C. Microsoft Exchange Online protects sensitive data by using data loss prevention
(DLP) capabilities.
D. Microsoft SharePoint Online allows the external sharing of documents.
Answer: B
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QUESTION:180
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
To meet the business goals, Proseware must convert training days into E-Leaning
courses. Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select "No change
is needed." If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the
statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. Phone Support Incidents
C. Planning Services days
D. Premier Problem Resolution Support hours
Answer: A
QUESTION:181
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it iscorrect.
Proseware is evaluating whether to move workloads from the on-premises datacenter to
the cloud. When leveraging the Microsoft Azure Hybrid Benefit, the company is
allowed to use its Windows Server licenses on up to 320 virtual cores on Azure.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select "No change is
needed." If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement
correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. Azure and the on-premises servers simultaneously
C. up to 32 Azure Virtual Machines ("Base Instances�)
D. Azure only after uninstalling Windows Server from the on-premises servers
Answer: C
QUESTION:182
Which licensing option should you recommend to meet the business goals and to
support the planned changes?
A. Enterprise Mobility + Security E3
B. Enterprise Mobility + Security E5
C. Microsoft 365 Enterprise E3
D. Microsoft 365 Enterprise E5
Answer: A
QUESTION:183
You need to identify to which Software Assurance (SA) benefits Proseware is entitled
when the company renews the EA for the existing Enterprise Products.
Which three benefits should you identity? Each correct answer presents a complete
solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Roaming Rights for Office Professional Plus
B. Roaming Rights for Windows 10 Enterprise
C. License Mobility
D. Office Online Server
E. Virtualization Rights for Windows and Windows Embedded Desktops
Answer: C, D, E
QUESTION:184
Proseware is evaluating whether to acquire Microsoft 365 Enterprise licenses for all
users. You need to identify which two characteristics of an EA meet the business goals.
Which two characteristics should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. the availability of Microsoft 365 Enterprise Add-on User Subscription Licenses
(USLs)
B. price protection for three years
C. the availability of Microsoft 365 Enterprise From SA User Subscription Licenses
(USLs)
D. extended use rights for Office servers when purchasing Microsoft 365 Enterprise
Answer: A
QUESTION:185
Which licensing option should you recommend to support the planned changes to the
on-premises datacenter?
A. Microsoft System Center 2016 Datacenter
B. Microsoft System Center Endpoint Protection
C. Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager
D. Microsoft System Center 2016 Standard
Answer: B
QUESTION:186
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Proseware is evaluating whether to license all users for Microsoft 365 Enterprise. Based
on the business goals, the company must purchase the licenses through an EA.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select "No change is
needed." If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement
correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. the Cloud Solution Provider (CSP) program
C. the Services Provider License Agreement (SPLA)
D. the Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA)
Answer: D
QUESTION:187
Which two benefits meet the business goals and support the planned changes? Each
correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one
point.
A. Microsoft SharePoint Online allows multiple users to collaborate on a document
simultaneously.
B. Microsoft Exchange Online provides built-in defenses against email threats.
C. Microsoft Exchange Online protects sensitive data by using data loss prevention
(DLP) capabilities.
D. Microsoft SharePoint Online allows the external sharing of documents.
Answer: B
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A. $114 billion
B. $53 billion
C. $241 billion
D. $16 billion
Answer: A
QUESTION: 254
A national crime surveyfortheyears 1975-1988 reportedthat the percentage of
households touched by crime had:
A. Increased by 25 percent
B. Decreased by 23 percent
C. Increased by 7 percent
D.Decreased by 5 percent
Answer: B
QUESTION: 255
For the past 20 years, the two major components of economic crime have been:
A. Employee theft and corporate bribery
B. Fraud and embezzlement
C. White-collar crime and ordinary crime
D.Computer crime and ordinary crime
Answer: C
QUESTION: 256
According to the White HouseConferencefora Drug-Free America, approximately
how many Americans had used an illegal drug in 1987?
A. 1 in 20
B. 1 in 2
C. 1 in 7
D.1 in 40
Answer: C
QUESTION: 257
According to a1989Gallup Poll,whatpercentage ofAmerican'workers have
personal knowledge of co-workers using illegal drugs on the job?
A. 5 percent
B. 10 percent
C. 25 percent
D.50 percent
Answer: C
QUESTION: 258
The percentage of the world's production of illegal drugs consumed in the United States
is approximately:
A. 5 percent
B. 25 percent
C. 60 percent
D. 95 percent
Answer: C
QUESTION: 259
The totalannual costto the UnitedStates fordrug abuse duetoresulting crime,lost
productivity, absenteeism, health care costs, and so forth is most closely represented by:
A. $50 million
B. $100 million
C. $100 billion
D. $400 billion
Answer: C
QUESTION: 260
According to a 1989 Departmentof Laborstudy,the percentage ofemployeesin
America working for a company that has a drug-testing program for employees or
plans tohave a drug-testing program is:
A. 1 percent
B. 10 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 80 percent
Answer: B
QUESTION: 261
Toimprove cooperation and communicationsbetween privatesecurityandlaw
enforcement, the authors of Hallcrest II recommend that:
A. Cooperative programs be established in every metropolitan area
B. Cities and counties enact ordinances providing for the police to regulate security
C. Secondary employment of law enforcement officers in security work be prohibited
D.Police academies teach security officers more about police work
Answer: A
QUESTION: 262
The percentage ofcomputersecurity incidents resultingfrom"insider" attacks by
dishonest and disgruntled employees is approximately:
A. 10 percent
B. 35 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 80 percent
Answer: D
QUESTION: 263
The percentage of computer security incidents that are annually believed to be attributed
to hackers is closest to:
A. 1 percent
B. 10 percent
C. 20 percent
D. 50 percent
Answer: A
QUESTION: 264
A 1990 National Institute of Justice study indicated that what percentage of computer
crimes are not prosecuted?
A. 10 percent
B. 25 percent
C. 70 percent
D. 90 percent
Answer: D
QUESTION: 265
The practiceof preventing unauthorized personsfromgammgintelligentinformation
byanalyzingelectromagneticemanations from electronicequipment, such as
computers,is often termed:
A. Tempest
B. Veiling
C. Bugging
D. Hardening
Answer: A
QUESTION: 266
AccordingtoHallcrestII,North Americanincidentsof terrorism representwhat
percentage of worldwide incidents?
A. Less than 1 percent
B. About 10 percent
C. Almost 25 percent
D. 40 percent
Answer: A
QUESTION: 267
Since 1985, the number of international terrorist incidents occurring each year is closest
to:
A. 1000
B. 5000
C. 10,000
D. 20,000
Answer: A
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A. $114 billion
B. $53 billion
C. $241 billion
D. $16 billion
Answer: A
QUESTION: 254
A national crime surveyfortheyears 1975-1988 reportedthat the percentage of
households touched by crime had:
A. Increased by 25 percent
B. Decreased by 23 percent
C. Increased by 7 percent
D.Decreased by 5 percent
Answer: B
QUESTION: 255
For the past 20 years, the two major components of economic crime have been:
A. Employee theft and corporate bribery
B. Fraud and embezzlement
C. White-collar crime and ordinary crime
D.Computer crime and ordinary crime
Answer: C
QUESTION: 256
According to the White HouseConferencefora Drug-Free America, approximately
how many Americans had used an illegal drug in 1987?
A. 1 in 20
B. 1 in 2
C. 1 in 7
D.1 in 40
Answer: C
QUESTION: 257
According to a1989Gallup Poll,whatpercentage ofAmerican'workers have
personal knowledge of co-workers using illegal drugs on the job?
A. 5 percent
B. 10 percent
C. 25 percent
D.50 percent
Answer: C
QUESTION: 258
The percentage of the world's production of illegal drugs consumed in the United States
is approximately:
A. 5 percent
B. 25 percent
C. 60 percent
D. 95 percent
Answer: C
QUESTION: 259
The totalannual costto the UnitedStates fordrug abuse duetoresulting crime,lost
productivity, absenteeism, health care costs, and so forth is most closely represented by:
A. $50 million
B. $100 million
C. $100 billion
D. $400 billion
Answer: C
QUESTION: 260
According to a 1989 Departmentof Laborstudy,the percentage ofemployeesin
America working for a company that has a drug-testing program for employees or
plans tohave a drug-testing program is:
A. 1 percent
B. 10 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 80 percent
Answer: B
QUESTION: 261
Toimprove cooperation and communicationsbetween privatesecurityandlaw
enforcement, the authors of Hallcrest II recommend that:
A. Cooperative programs be established in every metropolitan area
B. Cities and counties enact ordinances providing for the police to regulate security
C. Secondary employment of law enforcement officers in security work be prohibited
D.Police academies teach security officers more about police work
Answer: A
QUESTION: 262
The percentage ofcomputersecurity incidents resultingfrom"insider" attacks by
dishonest and disgruntled employees is approximately:
A. 10 percent
B. 35 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 80 percent
Answer: D
QUESTION: 263
The percentage of computer security incidents that are annually believed to be attributed
to hackers is closest to:
A. 1 percent
B. 10 percent
C. 20 percent
D. 50 percent
Answer: A
QUESTION: 264
A 1990 National Institute of Justice study indicated that what percentage of computer
crimes are not prosecuted?
A. 10 percent
B. 25 percent
C. 70 percent
D. 90 percent
Answer: D
QUESTION: 265
The practiceof preventing unauthorized personsfromgammgintelligentinformation
byanalyzingelectromagneticemanations from electronicequipment, such as
computers,is often termed:
A. Tempest
B. Veiling
C. Bugging
D. Hardening
Answer: A
QUESTION: 266
AccordingtoHallcrestII,North Americanincidentsof terrorism representwhat
percentage of worldwide incidents?
A. Less than 1 percent
B. About 10 percent
C. Almost 25 percent
D. 40 percent
Answer: A
QUESTION: 267
Since 1985, the number of international terrorist incidents occurring each year is closest
to:
A. 1000
B. 5000
C. 10,000
D. 20,000
Answer: A
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Answer: B
QUESTION: 244
Take a look at the comparison of the two life cycles below:
Look at the cell in the Information Systems Life Cycle that is filled with question marks.
Which of the following should replace those question marks to make a complete, correct
comparison?
A. growth
B. installation
C. implementation
D. reevaluation
Answer: C
QUESTION: 245
You are the coding supervisor at a large inpatient facility. Recently, there has been an
increase in coding errors. You have a meeting with your coders to discuss possible
reasons for the problem. The group agrees on the reasons listed below:
Having determined a good list of possible reasons for the increase in coding errors, you
would like to have your coders help you determine where you should place your problem
resolution efforts first. Your best bet for achieving consensus is to use
A. brainstorming.
B. nominal group technique.
C. force field analysis.
D. affinity grouping.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 246
In your job as Chief Security Officer, youare evaluating software programs that will
support your policy on sound terminal controls within your facility. One of the features
you include in your request for information to vendors is
A. time-out feature.
B. encryption.
C. voice recognition feature.
D. unique identifier for log-on.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 247
The plus sign beside survival time for subjects two (2) and six (6) in the table above
indicate observations on these subjects were censored. This means the subjects
A. entered the study at an advanced stage of the subject's illness.
B. have one or more risk factors in addition to the subject's illness.
C. withdrew from the study alive or were lost to follow-up.
D. died prior to the end of the study, regardless of cause.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 248
As the Project Manager for the upcoming HER implementation,you ask one of your
assistants to develop a work breakdown structure (WBS). Critical to implementations and
project success, the WBS
A. lists steps needed to complete the project.
B. determines dependencies among project tasks.
C. describes project responsibilities.
D. defines the project's critical path.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 249
As the HIM manager in charge of your department's budget, you are mandated to report
on variances of more than 6% either positive or negative to your Chief Financial Officer
and include the reasons for the variance and any action plans necessary. Based on the
table below for the December variance report, what category would you be required to
report on to the CFO?
A. office supplies
B. contract services
C. travel
D. education
Answer: C
QUESTION: 250
Evidence-based management and decision-making is an emerging model now used to
make more informed decisions. The primise of this model is
A. using intuition based on previous experience.
92
B. using a decision tree that branches to alternatives.
C. using the best clinical and research practices available.
D. using an alternative that meets minimum requirements.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 251
As a member of the project team for document imaging implementation, you were asked
to provide the information in the grid .This is an example of a(an)
A. PERT diagram.
B. Gantt chart.
C. PMBOK chart.
D. work flow diagram.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 252
Carson surveyed members of AHIMA's student CoP regarding the relationship between
clinical experiences and job opportunities. All respondents were seniors in HIA programs
and each one expected to graduate and take the national exam within the next 6 months.
Fifteen of the eighteen respondents indicated at least one clinical rotation had resulted in
a job offer. Based on this information, Carson expects to be offered a job during senior
clinical rotations. Carson is basing this expectation on
A. scientific inquiry.
B. empiricism.
C. inductive reasoning.
D. deductive reasoning.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 253
Investigator A claims his results are statistically significant at the 10% level. Investigator
B argue that significance should be announced only if the results are statistically
significant at the 5%.. level. From this we can conclude
A. if investigator A has significant results at the 10% level, they will never be significant
at the 5% level.
B. it will be more difficult for investigator A to reject the statistical null hypotheses if he
always works at the 10% level compared with investigator B who works at the 5% level.
C. if investigator A has significant results at the 10% level, they will also be significant at
the level.
D. it will be less difficult for investigator A to reject the statistical null hypotheses if he
always works at the 10% level compared with investigator B, who works at the 5% level.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 254
A researcher at your facility has submitted his study to the IRB for approval. As a
member of the IRB Review Committee, you note that his research is investigating lung
cancer occurrence in women who smoke. His timeframe for the study is January through
December of 2008. In this study, the independent variable in this case is:
A. the study timeframe.
B. women who smoke.
C. women who do not smoke.
D. cancer occurrence.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 255
Your HIM department is moving to a newlocation, and in order to arrange your
employees functions for optimal work flow efficiency and to decide which employees
need to be placed d to each other, the tool you decide to use is a
A. data flow diagram.
B. PERT chart.
C. proximity chart.
D. flow process chart.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 256
A p value of less than 0.05 is what researchers commonly use to reject the null
hypothesis. small p value may place interpretation of the results of the study at risk for a
A. sampling error.
B. stratification error.
C. type 1 (a) error.
D. type 2 (b) error.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 257
Which of the following employees would be considered exempt under the Fair Labor
Standards Act?
A. the head of the Department of Health Information Services who is involved in
decision making and planning 90%, of the time
B. the coding supervisor who has responsibility for three employees and performs
analysis and coding 80% of the time
C. the departmental secretary who is responsible for performing a variety of clerical and
administrative tasks
D. the sole employee in the physician's workroom who has responsibility for maintaining
and tracking medical record deficiencies
Answer: A
QUESTION: 258
95
In order to prevent the accidental introduction of a virus into your facility's local area
network, your facility has a policy that strictly prohibits
A. doing personal work on the computer system, even during personal time.
B. sharing disks from one workstation to another within the facility.
C. downloading executable files from electronic bulletin boards.
D. sending or receiving e-mail from addresses that have not been authorized.
Answer: C
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Answer: B
QUESTION: 244
Take a look at the comparison of the two life cycles below:
Look at the cell in the Information Systems Life Cycle that is filled with question marks.
Which of the following should replace those question marks to make a complete, correct
comparison?
A. growth
B. installation
C. implementation
D. reevaluation
Answer: C
QUESTION: 245
You are the coding supervisor at a large inpatient facility. Recently, there has been an
increase in coding errors. You have a meeting with your coders to discuss possible
reasons for the problem. The group agrees on the reasons listed below:
Having determined a good list of possible reasons for the increase in coding errors, you
would like to have your coders help you determine where you should place your problem
resolution efforts first. Your best bet for achieving consensus is to use
A. brainstorming.
B. nominal group technique.
C. force field analysis.
D. affinity grouping.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 246
In your job as Chief Security Officer, youare evaluating software programs that will
support your policy on sound terminal controls within your facility. One of the features
you include in your request for information to vendors is
A. time-out feature.
B. encryption.
C. voice recognition feature.
D. unique identifier for log-on.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 247
The plus sign beside survival time for subjects two (2) and six (6) in the table above
indicate observations on these subjects were censored. This means the subjects
A. entered the study at an advanced stage of the subject's illness.
B. have one or more risk factors in addition to the subject's illness.
C. withdrew from the study alive or were lost to follow-up.
D. died prior to the end of the study, regardless of cause.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 248
As the Project Manager for the upcoming HER implementation,you ask one of your
assistants to develop a work breakdown structure (WBS). Critical to implementations and
project success, the WBS
A. lists steps needed to complete the project.
B. determines dependencies among project tasks.
C. describes project responsibilities.
D. defines the project's critical path.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 249
As the HIM manager in charge of your department's budget, you are mandated to report
on variances of more than 6% either positive or negative to your Chief Financial Officer
and include the reasons for the variance and any action plans necessary. Based on the
table below for the December variance report, what category would you be required to
report on to the CFO?
A. office supplies
B. contract services
C. travel
D. education
Answer: C
QUESTION: 250
Evidence-based management and decision-making is an emerging model now used to
make more informed decisions. The primise of this model is
A. using intuition based on previous experience.
92
B. using a decision tree that branches to alternatives.
C. using the best clinical and research practices available.
D. using an alternative that meets minimum requirements.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 251
As a member of the project team for document imaging implementation, you were asked
to provide the information in the grid .This is an example of a(an)
A. PERT diagram.
B. Gantt chart.
C. PMBOK chart.
D. work flow diagram.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 252
Carson surveyed members of AHIMA's student CoP regarding the relationship between
clinical experiences and job opportunities. All respondents were seniors in HIA programs
and each one expected to graduate and take the national exam within the next 6 months.
Fifteen of the eighteen respondents indicated at least one clinical rotation had resulted in
a job offer. Based on this information, Carson expects to be offered a job during senior
clinical rotations. Carson is basing this expectation on
A. scientific inquiry.
B. empiricism.
C. inductive reasoning.
D. deductive reasoning.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 253
Investigator A claims his results are statistically significant at the 10% level. Investigator
B argue that significance should be announced only if the results are statistically
significant at the 5%.. level. From this we can conclude
A. if investigator A has significant results at the 10% level, they will never be significant
at the 5% level.
B. it will be more difficult for investigator A to reject the statistical null hypotheses if he
always works at the 10% level compared with investigator B who works at the 5% level.
C. if investigator A has significant results at the 10% level, they will also be significant at
the level.
D. it will be less difficult for investigator A to reject the statistical null hypotheses if he
always works at the 10% level compared with investigator B, who works at the 5% level.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 254
A researcher at your facility has submitted his study to the IRB for approval. As a
member of the IRB Review Committee, you note that his research is investigating lung
cancer occurrence in women who smoke. His timeframe for the study is January through
December of 2008. In this study, the independent variable in this case is:
A. the study timeframe.
B. women who smoke.
C. women who do not smoke.
D. cancer occurrence.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 255
Your HIM department is moving to a newlocation, and in order to arrange your
employees functions for optimal work flow efficiency and to decide which employees
need to be placed d to each other, the tool you decide to use is a
A. data flow diagram.
B. PERT chart.
C. proximity chart.
D. flow process chart.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 256
A p value of less than 0.05 is what researchers commonly use to reject the null
hypothesis. small p value may place interpretation of the results of the study at risk for a
A. sampling error.
B. stratification error.
C. type 1 (a) error.
D. type 2 (b) error.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 257
Which of the following employees would be considered exempt under the Fair Labor
Standards Act?
A. the head of the Department of Health Information Services who is involved in
decision making and planning 90%, of the time
B. the coding supervisor who has responsibility for three employees and performs
analysis and coding 80% of the time
C. the departmental secretary who is responsible for performing a variety of clerical and
administrative tasks
D. the sole employee in the physician's workroom who has responsibility for maintaining
and tracking medical record deficiencies
Answer: A
QUESTION: 258
95
In order to prevent the accidental introduction of a virus into your facility's local area
network, your facility has a policy that strictly prohibits
A. doing personal work on the computer system, even during personal time.
B. sharing disks from one workstation to another within the facility.
C. downloading executable files from electronic bulletin boards.
D. sending or receiving e-mail from addresses that have not been authorized.
Answer: C
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